Answer:
47.91 sec
Explanation:
it is given that 
at t=0 velocity =0 ( as it is given that it is starting from rest )
we have to find time at which velocity will be 3.3 
we know that 

integrating both side
---------------eqn 1
at t=o it is given that v=0 putting these value in eqn 1 c=0
so 
when v= 3.3 
t=
=47.91 sec
Answer:
Mechanical Advantage Formula
The efficiency of a machine is equal to the ratio of its output to its input. It is also equal to the ratio of the actual and theoretical MAs. But, it does not mean that low-efficiency machines are of limited use. An automobile jack, for example, have to overcome a great deal of friction and therefore it has low efficiency. But still, it is extremely valuable because small effort can be applied to lift a great weight.
Also, in another way the mechanical advantage is the force generated by a machine to the force applied to it which is applied in assessing the performance of the machine.
The mechanical advantage formula is:
MA = FBFA
Explanation:
MAmechanical advantageFBthe force of the object
FAthe effort to overcome the force
Answer:
D
Explanation:
took test failed question D is the right answer
Answer:
The white lined paper
Explanation:
The teacher is most likely putting the while line paper in jeopardy because of the detail process involved in taking care of the paper prior to the submission of the home work.
The fact that a mistake must not be visible due to the instruction of every erasures being thorough and clean. this can cause jeopardy to the paper.