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solong [7]
3 years ago
12

The GPS (Global Positioning System) satellites are approximately 5.18 mm across and transmit two low-power signals, one of which

is at 1575.42 MHz (in the UHF band). In a series of laboratory tests on the satellite, you put two 1575.42 MHz UHF transmitters at opposite ends of the satellite. These broadcast in phase uniformly in all directions. You measure the intensity at points on a circle that is several hundred meters in radius and centered on the satellite. You measure angles on this circle relative to a point that lies along the centerline of the satellite (that is, the perpendicular bisector of a line which extends from one transmitter to the other). At this point on the circle, the measured intensity is 2.00 W/m^2.
Required:
What is the intensity at a point on the circle at an angle of 4.45° from the centerline?

Physics
1 answer:
MatroZZZ [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

intensity at a point on the circle at an angle of 4.45° from the center line is 1.77 W/m².

Explanation:

See attached picture.

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A baseball has a momentum of 6.0 kg.m/s south and mass of 0.15kg. What’s the baseballs velocity?
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

<em>v=40 m/s south</em>

Explanation:

<u>Momentum </u>

It's a physical magnitude that measures the product of the mass by the velocity of a particle. Its units in the International System is kg.m/s and the formula is

p=m.v

Where m is the mass and v the velocity of the particle. If we wanted to solve for v, we have

\displaystyle v=\frac{p}{m}

The baseball has a momentum of 6.0 kg.m/s south and mass of 0.15kg, thus

\displaystyle v=\frac{6}{0.15}=40\ m/s

The velocity is directed to the south

3 0
3 years ago
A sailboat is traveling to the right when a gust of wind causes the boat to accelerate leftward at 2.5​​​​m​​/s2 for 4s. After t
Ber [7]

Answer:

+7.0 m/s

Explanation:

Let's take rightward as positive direction.

So in this problem we have:

a = -2.5 m/s^2 acceleration due to the wind (negative because it is leftward)

t = 4 s time interval

v = -3.0 m/s is the final velocity (negative because it is leftward)

We can use the following equation:

v = u + at

Where u is the initial velocity

We want to find u, so if we rearrange the equation we find:

u = v - at = (-3.0 m/s) - (-2.5 m/s^2)(4 s)=+7.0 m/s

and the positive sign means the initial direction was rightward.

6 0
3 years ago
Graphite crystals can be used as a lubricant.<br> TRUE<br> FALSE
timurjin [86]
I think its true because they are a soft solid that can be broken down into a liquid... Hope this helps in any way :3
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by
Ulleksa [173]

A) v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B) r=\frac{mv}{qB}

C) T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

D) \omega=\frac{qB}{m}

E) r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

\Delta U = qV

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B)

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

F=qvB

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

F=m\frac{v^2}{r}

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (1)

C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference (2\pi r) and the velocity of the particle (v):

T=\frac{2\pi r}{v} (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

which can be rewritten as

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}

And substitutin into (4), we find:

r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

6 0
3 years ago
What is the best way to start a summary paragraph
pochemuha
Start with what the paragraph is about and put it basically in your own words
8 0
3 years ago
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