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natulia [17]
3 years ago
5

Which principle explains why the flame bends toward the wind?

Physics
1 answer:
kondaur [170]3 years ago
4 0
Bernoulli principle
According to Bernoulli's principle, this faster moving air on the top has a lower pressure than the non-moving air on the bottom. With a greater pressure on the bottom of the paper there is also a greater force pushing up.
You might be interested in
A 6 m long, uniform ladder leans against a frictionless wall and makes an angle of 74.3 ◦ with the floor. The ladder has a mass
olganol [36]

Answer: µ=0.205

Explanation:

The horizontal forces acting on the ladder are the friction(f) at the floor and the normal force (Fw) at the wall. For horizontal equilibrium,

f=Fw

The sum of the moments about the base of the ladder Is 0

ΣM = 0 = Fw*L*sin74.3º - (25.8kg*(L/2) + 67.08kg*0.82L)*cos74.3º*9.8m/s²

Note that it doesn't matter WHAT the length of the ladder is -- it cancels.

Solve this for Fw.

0= 0.9637FwL - (67.91L)2.652

Fw=180.1/0.9637

Fw=186.87N

f=186.81N

Since Fw=f

We know Fw, so we know f.

But f = µ*Fn

where Fn is the normal force at the floor --

Fn = (25.8 + 67.08)kg * 9.8m/s² =

910.22N

so

µ = f / Fn

186.81/910.22

µ= 0.205

4 0
2 years ago
Two 0.50 g spheres are charged equally and placed 2.5 cm apart. When released, they begin to accelerate at 170 m/s^2 .What is th
vitfil [10]

Answer:

q=7.65*10^{-8}C

Explanation:

Using Newton's second law, we calculate the magnitude of the electric force between the spheres:

F=ma\\F=0.5*10^{-3}kg(170\frac{m}{s^2})\\F=0.085N

The magnitude of the charge in both spheres is the same. So, we calculate the charge, using Coulomb's law:

F=\frac{kq^2}{d^2}\\q=\sqrt\frac{Fd^2}{k}\\q=\sqrt\frac{(0.085N)(2.5*10^{-2}m)^2}{8.99*10^9\frac{N\cdot m^2}{C^2}}\\q=7.65*10^{-8}C

8 0
3 years ago
Luigi twirls a round piece of pizza dough overhead with a frequency of
viva [34]

The linear speed of the pepperoni is 0.628 m/s. Its direction is tangential to the circle.

We know that;

v = rω

r = radius of the piece = 10 cm or 0.1 m

ω = angular velocity

We have to convert 60 revolutions per minute to radians per second

1 rev/min = 0.10472 rad/s

60 revolutions per minute = 60 rev/min × 0.10472 rad/s/1 rev/min

= 6.28 rad/s

v =  0.1 m ×  6.28 rad/s

v = 0.628 m/s

The direction of this velocity is tangential to the circle.

Learn more: brainly.com/question/4612545

5 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP! Can you do the write about it! Will thank and try to mark brainiest!
goblinko [34]
Move the objects faster to get more friction.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please need help with this
PtichkaEL [24]
Through is the answer to your question
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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