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elixir [45]
3 years ago
12

What is true about a ferromagnetic material? its magnetic domains are constantly aligned. its north pole is stronger than its so

uth pole. it has only one pole. it can gain or lose magnetism?
Physics
2 answers:
madam [21]3 years ago
6 0
Th answer is it could gain or loss magnetism.


Ferromagnetism is a kind of magnetism that is associated with cobalt, iron, and nickel and on some alloys or compounds containing one or more of the said elements, It also occurs in gadolinium, which is a rare-earth element. In comparison to other substances, ferromagnetic materials can be magnetized easily and in strong magnetic fields, the magnetization approaches a definite limit called stauration.

If an external field is applied and subsequently removed which does not return the magnetization to its original state or value it is called hysteresis. When heated to a certain temperature (Curie point), which is unique for each substance, ferromagnetic materials would somehow lose their magnetic properties and cease to be magnetic. Once they would cool down, their magnetism would return.
REY [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: The correct answer is " its magnetic domains are constantly aligned".

Explanation:

Ferromagnetic materials are the materials that are magnetic. They are able to create permanent magnets. The magnetic moments of large number of atoms are aligned parallel to each other. These create a strong magnetization within the material.

They contain unpaired electrons. It is the reason that the ferromagnetic material has magnetism.

In ferromagnetic materials, the magnetic domains are constantly aligned.

Therefore, the correct answer is " its magnetic domains are constantly aligned".

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IMPORTANT 3 QUESTIONS!
Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

7. 20,000,000 mL.

8. 8,000 m.

9. 120,000 secs.

10. 4

Explanation:

7. Determination of the volume in millilitres (mL)

Volume in litre (L) = 20,000 L

Volume in millilitres (mL) =..?

The volume in mL can be obtained as follow:

1 L = 1,000 mL

Therefore,

20,000 L = 20,000 x 1,000 = 20,000,000 mL.

Therefore, 20,000 L is equivalent to 20,000,000 mL.

8. Determination of the distance in metre (m)

Distance in mile = 5 mile

Distance in metre =?

First, we shall convert from mile to kilometre.

This can be done as follow:

1 mile = 1.6 km

Therefore,

5 mile = 5 x 1.6 = 8 km

Finally, we shall convert 8 km to metre (m).

This is illustrated below:

1 km = 1,000 m

Therefore,

8 km = 8 x 1,000 = 8,000 m

Therefore, 5 miles is equivalent to 8,000 m.

9. Determination of the time in seconds.

Time = 400 minutes for 5 days.

First, we shall convert 400 mins to hour.

This is illustrated below:

60 minutes = 1 hour

Therefore,

400 mins = 400/60 = 20/3 hours

The time (hours) is 20/3 hours in 1 day.

Therefore, the time (hours) in 5 days will be = 20/3 x 5 = 100/3 hours.

Next, we shall convert 100/3 hours to minutes.

This is illustrated below:

1 hour = 60 minutes

Therefore,

100/3 hours = 100/3 x 60 = 2000 mins

Finally, we shall convert 2000 mins to seconds.

This is illustrated below:

1 mins = 60 secs

2000 mins = 2000 x 60 = 120,000 secs.

Therefore, the time is 120,000 secs.

10. Determination of the number of significant figures.

To obtain the significant figures of a number, we simply count all the numbers available.

Therefore, the number of significant figures for 9876 is 4.

6 0
4 years ago
4.5 x 10kg) - (2.3 x 10 kg)
Degger [83]

Answer:

22 kg

Explanation:

I hope this helps!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help? Please? Thanks!
Katena32 [7]
1,3 and 5 are the answers 
5 0
3 years ago
a 8000kg tow truck pulls a 3000kg car horizontally into a garage. if the motor of the tow truck exerts a forward thrust on the t
Evgen [1.6K]
Equation 1 :
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Placing in  equation 1

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8 0
3 years ago
The velocity of the wave involved in the Doppler effect:
Margarita [4]

The Doppler Effect provides the equation for the calculation of apparent frequency:

f=fo[vo/(vo-vr)] 

where:<span>
vo=source wave velocity 
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<span>
The velocity of the doppler wave is 
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where λ is light wavelength. Hence,

v=λfo[vo/(vo-vr)] 

Based on the equation, we can say that wave velocity will always be defined by one and only one wavelength.

Therefore the answer is letter C.

<span> </span>

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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