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SashulF [63]
3 years ago
6

5.

Physics
1 answer:
Vera_Pavlovna [14]3 years ago
4 0
Its a 10:1 ratio so every 1 hour, the speed goes up 10 miles.
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1 point
Trava [24]

Answer:

Their number should increase

Explanation:

The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon that causes the ejection of electrons from that metal as light shined onto a metal surface. Only certain frequencies of light can cause the ejection of electrons. However, if the frequency of the incident light is too low then no electrons were ejected even if the intensity of the light was very high. If the frequency of the light was higher then electrons were able to be ejected from the metal surface even if the intensity of the light was very low.

According to the accepted wave theory, light of any frequency will cause electrons to be emitted. Kinetic energy emitted by the electrons depends upon the intensity of light.

According to the accepted wave theory, number of electrons being ejected by the metal should increase

5 0
3 years ago
What is the purpose of heat index
Nookie1986 [14]
<span>It tells how hot it really feels when the relative humidity is factored in with the actual air temperature.
hope this helps</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The distance between two particles is 2 centimeters. If the distance is increased to 4 centimeters, the force will be ?
postnew [5]

Answer:

The new force is 1/4 of the previous force.

Explanation:

Given

Initial\ Distance = 2cm ---- r_1

New\ Distance = 4cm --- r_2

Required

Determine the new force

Let the two particles be q1 and q2.

The initial force F1 is:

F_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r_1^2} --- Coulomb's law

Substitute 2 for r1

F_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{2^2}

F_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{4}

The new force (F2) is

F_2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r_2^2}

Substitute 4 for r2

F_2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{4^2}

F_2 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{4*4}

F_2 = \frac{1}{4}*\frac{kq_1q_2}{4}

Substitute F_1 = \frac{kq_1q_2}{4}

F_2 = \frac{1}{4}*F_1

F_2 = \frac{F_1}{4}

The new force is 1/4 of the previous force.

3 0
2 years ago
Tennis balls traveling at greater than 100 mph routinely bounce off tennis rackets. At some sufficiently high speed, however, th
Kipish [7]

Answer:

Probability of tunneling is 10^{- 1.17\times 10^{32}}

Solution:

As per the question:

Velocity of the tennis ball, v = 120 mph = 54 m/s

Mass of the tennis ball, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg

Thickness of the tennis ball, t = 2.0 mm = 2.0\times 10^{- 3}\ m

Max velocity of the tennis ball, v_{m} = 200\ mph = 89 m/s

Now,

The maximum kinetic energy of the tennis ball is given by:

KE = \frac{1}{2}mv_{m}^{2} = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.1\times 89^{2} = 396.05\ J

Kinetic energy of the tennis ball, KE' = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2} = 0.5\times 0.1\times 54^{2} = 154.8\ m/s

Now, the distance the ball can penetrate to is given by:

\eta = \frac{\bar{h}}{\sqrt{2m(KE - KE')}}

\bar{h} = \frac{h}{2\pi} = \frac{6.626\times 10^{- 34}}{2\pi} = 1.0545\times 10^{- 34}\ Js

Thus

\eta = \frac{1.0545\times 10^{- 34}}{\sqrt{2\times 0.1(396.05 - 154.8)}}

\eta = \frac{1.0545\times 10^{- 34}}{\sqrt{2\times 0.1(396.05 - 154.8)}}

\eta = 1.52\times 10^{-35}\ m

Now,

We can calculate the tunneling probability as:

P(t) = e^{\frac{- 2t}{\eta}}

P(t) = e^{\frac{- 2\times 2.0\times 10^{- 3}}{1.52\times 10^{-35}}} = e^{-2.63\times 10^{32}}

P(t) = e^{-2.63\times 10^{32}}

Taking log on both the sides:

logP(t) = -2.63\times 10^{32} loge

P(t) = 10^{- 1.17\times 10^{32}}

6 0
3 years ago
What force is represented by the vector?
choli [55]
Well I think B hope this helps
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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