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3 years ago

Why should a tennis player "swing through" when hitting a tennis ball?

1 answer:

7 0

If a tennis player does not swing through, meaning they stop swinging the moment they make contact with the ball, they would lose the majority of their power. <em>The momentum that they had built up during the swing is lost the moment they stop swinging</em>, meaning that the ball is hit with a low amount of power.

<em>If the tennis player swings through the whole time they hit the ball, then they keep their momentum as they hit the ball.</em> There is a much higher power level when swinging through than if you were to stop your swing when you hit the ball.

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Find the work needed to lift a 20-N book 2 m.

Ulleksa [173]

This question is written wrong, I think u meant 20 kg?

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3 years ago

The Special Olympics raises money through "plane pull" events in which teams of 25 people compete to see who can pull a 74,000 k

Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

28716.4740661 N

1.2131147541 m/s

51.2474965841%

Explanation:

m = Mass of plane = 74000 kg

s = Displacement = 3.7 m

f = Frictional force = 14000 N

t = Time taken = 6.1 s

u = Initial velocity = 0

v = Final velocity

$s=ut+\frac{1}{2}at^2\\\Rightarrow 3.7=0\times 6.1+\frac{1}{2}\times a\times 6.1^2\\\Rightarrow a=\frac{3.7\times 2}{6.1^2}\\\Rightarrow a=0.198871271164\ m/s^2$

Force is given by

$F=ma+f\\\Rightarrow F=74000\times 0.198871271164+14000\\\Rightarrow F=28716.4740661\ N$

The force with which the team pulls the plane is 28716.4740661 N

$v=u+at\\\Rightarrow v=0+0.198871271164\times 6.1\\\Rightarrow v=1.2131147541\ m/s$

The speed of the plane is 1.2131147541 m/s

Kinetic energy is given by

$K=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2\\\Rightarrow K=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 74000\times 1.2131147541^2\\\Rightarrow K=54450.9540448\ J$

Work done is given by

$W=Fs\\\Rightarrow W=28716.4740661\times 3.7\\\Rightarrow W=106250.954045\ J$

The fraction is given by

$\dfrac{54450.9540448}{106250.954045}=0.512474965841$

The teams 51.2474965841% of the work goes to kinetic energy of the plane.

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

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What is a vernier caliper used for?

iris [78.8K]

me ajudem por favor pra agora de noite

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3 years ago

Can a body have zero velocity and finite acceleration?Explain

sergejj [24]

Answer:

Kinda? Depends what the question is fully asking

Explanation:

Acceleration is a change in velocity. So I guess if the velocity of something is -2 m/s and its positively accelerating at a value of +1 m/s, then that means every second its velocity changes by +1m/s.

So that -2 m/s thing after one second will be going -1 m/s.

After another second it'll be going 0 m/s.

After another itll be going +1 m/s and so on.

So at one point for a brief moment, it can have an acceleration but be at 0 m/s velocity.

5 0

3 years ago

Why should a tennis player "swing through" when hitting a tennis ball?​

Why should a tennis player "swing through" when hitting a tennis ball?