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Gennadij [26K]
3 years ago
9

Why do liquids solidefy?

Physics
1 answer:
Setler79 [48]3 years ago
4 0

energy extracted out of liquids an atoms are left to come closer arrange themselves shorter distance and then they solidify
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What is your zodiac sign?
ahrayia [7]
Answer: Gemini

Explanation: lol I just born that that sign ig
7 0
2 years ago
Please help!! giving a lot of points
Readme [11.4K]

Question 1.

  • mass = 4500 kg
  • potential energy (p.e) = 67500 J

now, we know :

=》

p.e =  mgh

=》

67500 = 4500 \times 10 \times h

=》

67500 = 45000 \times h

=》

h =  \dfrac{67500}{45000}

=》

h = 1.5 \: m

note : if we take acceleration due to gravity as 9.8, then height = 1.53 m

Question 2.

  • mass = 4500 kg
  • kinetic energy = 63000 j

we know,

=》

k.e =  \dfrac{1}{2} mv {}^{2}

=》

63000 =  \dfrac{1}{2}  \times 4500 \times  {v}^{2}

=》

{v}^{2}  =  \dfrac{63000 \times 2}{4500}

=》

{v}^{2}  = 28

=》

v =  \sqrt{28}

=》

v = 2 \sqrt{7} \:  \:  ms {}^{ - 1}

or

=》

5.29 \:  \: ms {}^{ - 1}

7 0
2 years ago
The speed of an electromagnetic wave is a constant, 3.0 × 108 m/s. The wavelength of a wave is 0.3 meters. What is the frequency
mojhsa [17]
It would be 1.0 x 10^6 Hz
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A sled of mass m is being pulled horizontally by a constant horizontal force of magnitude F. The coefficient of kinetic friction
rusak2 [61]

I'll bite:

-- Since the sled's mass is 'm', its weight is 'mg'.

-- Since the coefficient of kinetic friction is μk, the force acting opposite to the direction it's sliding is    (μk) times (mg) .

-- If the pulling force is constant 'F', then the horizontal forces on the sled
are 'F' forward and (μk · mg) backwards.

-- The net force on the sled is  (F - μk·mg).
(I regret the visual appearance that's beginning to emerge,
but let's forge onward.)

-- The sled's horizontal acceleration is  (net force) / (mass) = (F - μk·mg) / m.
This could be simplified, but let's not just yet.

-- Starting from rest, the sled moves a distance 's' during time 't'.
We know that  s = 1/2 a t² , and we know what 'a' is.  So we can write

           s = (1/2 t²)  (F - μk·mg) / m    .

Now we have the distance, and the constant force.
The total work is (Force x distance), and the power is (Work / time).
Let's put it together and see how ugly it becomes.  Maybe THEN
it can be simplified.

Work = (Force x distance) =  F x  (1/2 t²)  (F - μk·mg) / m
 
Power = (Work / time) =    <em>F (t/2) (F - μk·mg) / m </em>

Unless I can come up with something a lot simpler, that's the answer.


To simplify and beautify, make the partial fractions out of the
2nd parentheses:
                                   <em> F (t/2) (F/m - μk·m)</em>

I think that's about as far as you can go.  I tried some other presentations,
and didn't find anything that's much simpler.

Five points,ehhh ?


4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is NOT an example of Reflection
raketka [301]

Refraction as in a pencil going into water


8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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