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Advocard [28]
4 years ago
9

Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly.

Engineering
1 answer:
AVprozaik [17]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Mechanical engineer? Thats my guess I didnt have alot of options sorry if I am wrong

Explanation:

You might be interested in
Three point charges, each with q = 3 nC, are located at the corners of a triangle in the x-y plane, with one corner at the origi
lawyer [7]

Answer:

\vec F_{A} = -67500\,N\cdot (i + j)

Explanation:

The position of each point are the following:

A = (0\,m,0\,m,0\,m), B = (0.02\,m,0\,m,0\,m), C = (0\,m,0.02\,m,0\,m)

Since the three objects report charges with same sign, then, net force has a repulsive nature. The net force experimented by point charge A is:

\vec F_{A} = \vec F_{AB} + \vec F_{AC}

\vec F_{A} = -\frac{k\cdot q^{2}}{r_{AB}^{2}}\cdot i - \frac{k\cdot q^{2}}{r_{AC}^{2}}\cdot j

\vec F_{A} = - \frac{k\cdot q^{2}}{r^{2}} \cdot (i + j)

\vec F_{A} = -\frac{(9 \times 10^{9}\,\frac{N\cdot m^{2}}{C^{2}} )\cdot (3\times 10^{-9}\,C)}{(0.02\,m)^{2}}\cdot (i + j)

\vec F_{A} = -67500\,N\cdot (i + j)

6 0
3 years ago
A cylindrical specimen of steel has an original diameter of 12.8 mm. It is tested in tension its engineering fracture strength i
Mama L [17]

Answer:

a) The ductility = -30.12%

the negative sign means reduction

Therefore, there is 30.12% reduction

b) the true stress at fracture is 658.26 Mpa

Explanation:

Given that;

Original diameter d_{o} = 12.8 mm

Final diameter d_{f} = 10.7

Engineering stress  \alpha _{E} = 460 Mpa

a) determine The ductility in terms of percent reduction in area;

Ai = π/4(d_{o} )²  ; Ag = π/4(d_{f} )²

% = π/4 [ ( (d_{f} )² - (d_{o} )²) / ( π/4  (d_{o} )²) ]

= ( (d_{f} )² - (d_{o} )²) / (d_{o} )² × 100

we substitute

= [( (10.7)² - (12.8)²) / (12.8)² ] × 100

= [(114.49 - 163.84) / 163.84 ] × 100

= - 0.3012 × 100

= -30.12%

the negative sign means reduction

Therefore, there is 30.12% reduction

b) The true stress at fracture;

True stress  \alpha _{T} = \alpha _{E} ( 1 +  E_{E} )

E_{E}  is engineering strain

E_{E}  = dL / Lo

= (do² - df²) / df² = (12.8² - 10.7²) / 10.7² = (163.84 - 114.49) / 114.49

= 49.35 / 114.49  

E_{E} = 0.431

so we substitute the value of E_{E}  into our initial equation;

True stress  \alpha _{T} = 460 ( 1 +  0.431)

True stress  \alpha _{T} = 460 (1.431)

True stress  \alpha _{T} = 658.26 Mpa

Therefore, the true stress at fracture is 658.26 Mpa

6 0
3 years ago
A 4-stroke Diesel engine with a displacement of Vd = 2.5x10^-3m^3 produces a mean effective pressure of 6.4 bar at the speed of
yKpoI14uk [10]

Answer:

The power developed by engine is 167.55 KW

Explanation:

Given that

V_d=2.5\times 10^{-3} m^3

Mean effective pressure = 6.4 bar

Speed = 2000 rpm

We know that power is the work done per second.

So

P=6.4\times 100\times 2.5\times 10^{-3}\times \dfrac{2\pi \times2000}{120}

We have to notice one point that we divide by 120 instead of 60, because it is a 4 cylinder engine.

P=167.55 KW

So the power developed by engine is 167.55 KW

4 0
3 years ago
how is friction losses in pipes reduced? a. decrease the pipe diameter b. increase the length of the pipes. c. decrease the leng
Citrus2011 [14]

Friction losses in pipes can be reduced by decreasing the length of the pipes, reducing the surface roughness of the pipes, and increasing the pipe diameter. Thus, options (c),(e), and (f) hold correct answers.

Friction loss is a measure of the amount of energy a piping system loses because flowing fluids meet resistance. As fluids flow through the pipes, they carry energy with them. Unfortunately, whenever there is resistance to the flow rate, it diverts fluids, and energy escapes. These opposing forces result in friction loss in pipes.

Friction loss in pipes can decrease the efficiency of the functions of pipes. These are a few ways by which friction loss in pipes can be reduced and the efficiency of the piping system can be boosted:

  • <u><em>Decrease the length of the pipes</em></u>: By decreasing pipe lengths and avoiding the use of sharp turns, fittings, and tees, whenever possible result in a more natural path for fluids to flow.
  • <u><em>Reduce the surface roughness of the pipes</em></u>:  By reducing the interior surface roughness of pipes, a smooth and clearer path is provided for liquids to flow.
  • <u><em>Increase the pipe diameter: </em></u>By widening the diameters of pipes, it is ensured that fluids squeeze through pipes easily.

You can learn more about friction losses at

brainly.com/question/13348561

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
Air enters the compressor of an air-standard Brayton cycle with a volumetric flow rate of 60 m3/s at 0.8 bar, 280 K. The compres
natima [27]

Answer:

a) The Net power developed in this air-standard Brayton cycle is 43.8MW

b) The rate of heat addition in the combustor is 84.2MW

c) The thermal efficiency of the cycle is 52%

Explanation:

To solve this cycle we need to determinate the enthalpy of each work point of it. If we consider the cycle starts in 1, the air is compressed until 2, is heated until 3 and go throw the turbine until 4.

Considering this:

h_{i} =T_{i}C_{pair}=T_{i}1.005\frac{KJ}{Kg K}

\mu_{comp}=\frac{h_{2S}-h_{1}}{h_{2}-h_{1}}

\mu_{comp}=\frac{h_{3}-h_{4}}{h_{3}-h_{4S}}

G_{m} =\frac{PMG_{v}}{TR} =59.73\frac{Kg}{s}

Now we can calculate the enthalpy of each work point:

h₁=281.4KJ/Kg

h₂=695.41KJ/Kg

h₃=2105KJ/Kg

h₄=957.14KJ/Kg

The net power developed:

P_{net}=P_{Tur}-P_{Comp}=G_{m}((h_{3}-h_{4})-(h_{2}-h_{1}))

The rate of heat:

Q=G_{m}(h_{3}-h_{2})

The thermal efficiency:

\mu_{ther}=\frac{P_{net}}{Q}

3 0
3 years ago
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