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yKpoI14uk [10]
3 years ago
12

you have a permanent magnet whit remanent induction. than you cut a piec of that magnet. if you put that piece back into permane

nt magnet will the remanent induction be the same it was in begining​
Engineering
1 answer:
ELEN [110]3 years ago
5 0
Yes, it will. The induction will be the same as long as it’s put back together.
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What should you, the worker, be aware of with regard to evacuation procedures at your workplace
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

As a worker, it is important to follow the proper set of instructions or emergency plans during an emergent situation. Not carefully following the rules may result to a bigger problem such as further injury and damage to property.

Explanation:

Evacuation Procedure- This is a step-by-step procedure that people follow in order to safely vacate any building or place. This procedure is applicable to any situation, such as the workplace. This is now called the <em>Workplace Evacuation Procedure. </em>This is very important because there are so many unpredictable situations or events that are happening in the world right now, such as fire or earthquake. This procedure is being done through an evacuation plan.

The awareness of the workers regarding the proper way to evacuate during emergency situation is very important. It will be easier for them to know where to locate the nearest exit route. They will also learn to stop any form of device or equipment that could cause a hazzard during the situation. In case of the hospital, which is also a workplace, the employees will also learn how to assist the patients before themselves. They will also know where to assemble if there's a need to do so.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You hang a heavy ball with a mass of 42 kg from a silver rod 2.7 m long by 1.9 mm by 2.6 mm. You measure the stretch of the rod,
nadezda [96]

Answer:

Explanation:

cross sectional area  A = 1.9 x 2.6 x 10⁻⁶ m²

= 4.94 x 10⁻⁶ m²

stress = 42 x 9.8 / 4.94 x 10⁻⁶

= 83.32 x 10⁶ N/m²

strain = .002902 / 2.7

= 1.075 x 10⁻³

Young's modulus = stress / strain

= 83.32 x 10⁶ / 1.075 x 10⁻³

= 77.5 x 10⁹ N/m²

5 0
3 years ago
Heres a question that needs to be answered fast im running out of time
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

9

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Determine the speed of sound in air at 400 K. Also determine the Mach number of an aircraft moving in the air at a velocity of 3
Reika [66]

Answer:

\alpha = \sqrt{1.4 *0.287 \frac{KJ}{Kg K}*\frac{1000J}{1KJ} *400 K}= 400.899 m/s

Ma= \frac{310 m/s}{400.899 m/s}= 0.773

Explanation:

For this case we have given the following data:

T= 400 K represent the temperature for the air

v = 310 m/s represent the velocity of the air

k = 1.4 represent the specific heat ratio at the room

R = 0.287 KJ/ Kg K represent the gas constant  for the air

And we want to find the velocity of the air under these conditions.

We can calculate the spped of the sound with the Newton-Laplace Equation given by this equation:

\alpha = \sqrt{\frac{K}{\rho}}=\sqrt{k RT}

Where K = is the Bulk Modulus of air, k is the adiabatic index of air= 1.4, R = the gas constant  for the air, \rho the density of the air and T the temperature in K

So on this case we can replace and we got:

\alpha = \sqrt{1.4 *0.287 \frac{KJ}{Kg K}*\frac{1000J}{1KJ} *400 K}= 400.899 m/s

The Mach number by definition is "a dimensionless quantity representing the ratio of flow velocity past a boundary to the local speed of sound" and is defined as:

Ma=\frac{v}{\alpha}

Where v is the flow velocity and \alpha the volocity of the sound in the medium and if we replace we got:

Ma= \frac{310 m/s}{400.899 m/s}= 0.773

And since the Ma<0.8 we can classify the regime as subsonic.

7 0
3 years ago
A 14-lb crate is pulled up a frictionless 40° ramp with an initial velocity of v1=0.4 ft/s. It is pulled 0.3 ft from location #1
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

3.25 ft/s

Explanation:

The crate is of =14-lb=m₁

The angle of inclination is = 40°=Ф

The initial velocity = 0.4 ft/s= v₁

Distance the crate will move is= 0.3 ft =d

The load pulling downwards is = 36 lb= m₂

Acceleration of the pulley, a= m₂g - m₁gsinФ / m₁+m₂ where g= 32.17 ft/s^2

a= 36*32.17 - 14*32.17*sin 40° / 14+36

a=17.37 ft/s^2

Apply the formula for final velocity

V₂²=V₁²+2ad

V₂²=0.4²+ 2*17.37*0.3

V₂²=10.582

V₂ =√10.582 = 3.25 ft/s

6 0
3 years ago
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