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Neko [114]
3 years ago
14

How does inertia affect someone who isn't wearing a seatbelt

Physics
1 answer:
Paul [167]3 years ago
7 0
Basically, when someone is resting in an accelerated vehicle without restraint from a seatbelt, the force of stopping the vehicle will be when inertia occurs, and that force of the vehicle coming to a stop will affect the passenger (without a seatbelt/restraint from another force or object) greatly by throwing them.
For example;
If I were to be riding in a vehicle (without a seatbelt) that's accelerating at 40 m/s^2 and it suddenly gets slammed on the breaks, I will be thrown forward from inside the vehicle.

I hope this helps!
You might be interested in
How many seconds in a day? A hole day.
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]
1 year<span> consists of 365 days. 1 day has 24 hours, each hour has 60 minutes and each minute has 60 </span>seconds. <span>1 day = (24 hours/day) × (60 minutes/hour) × (60 seconds/minute) = 86400 seconds/day

Hope that helped :)</span>
4 0
3 years ago
A hiker walks 200 m west and then walks 100 m north. In what direction is her resulting displacement?a. northb. westc. northwest
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:

Assuming that the hiker starts walking from the origin O as shown in the figure.

First, he walks 200 m west to point A (say), then he walks 100 m north to the final point B (say) as shown in the figure.

The final point B is in the north-west direction, therefore, the resulting point is in the north-west direction.

Hence, option (C) is correct.

7 0
3 years ago
A crude approximation for the x component of velocity in an incompressible laminar boundary layer is a linear variation from u =
slega [8]

Answer:

2.5 * 10^-3

Explanation:

<u>solution:</u>

The simplest solution is obtained if we assume that this is a two-dimensional steady flow, since in that case there are no dependencies upon the z coordinate or time t. Also, we will assume that there are no additional arbitrary purely x dependent functions f (x) in the velocity component v. The continuity equation for a two-dimensional in compressible flow states:

<em>δu/δx+δv/δy=0</em>

so that:  

<em>δv/δy= -δu/δx</em>

Now, since u = Uy/δ, where δ = cx^1/2, we have that:

<em>u=U*y/cx^1/2</em>

and we obtain:  

<em>δv/δy=U*y/2cx^3/2</em>

The last equation can be integrated to obtain (while also using the condition of simplest solution - no z or t dependence, and no additional arbitrary functions of x):  

v=∫δv/δy(dy)=U*y/4cx^1/2

 =y/x*(U*y/4cx^1/2)

 =u*y/4x

which is exactly what we needed to demonstrate.  

Also, using u = U*y/δ in the last equation we can obtain:  

v/U=u*y/4*U*x

     =y^2/4*δ*x

which obviously attains its maximum value for the which is y = δ (boundary-layer edge). So, finally:

(v/U)_max=δ^2/4δx

                =δ/4x

                =2.5 * 10^-3

7 0
3 years ago
Describe, using the relevant physics, how moving a magnet near a [ 1 2 ] solenoid induces a voltage across it. How does the spee
Svetllana [295]

Answer:

Explanation:

Moving a magnet might cause a change in the magnetic field going through the solenoid. Whether or not it will change depends on the movement.

According to Faraday's law of induction a voltage is induced in a coil by a change in the magnetic flux. Magnetic flux is defined as the dot product of the magnetic field (a vector field) by the area enclosed by a loop of the coil.

\Phi B = -\int{B} \, dA

The voltage is induced by the variation of the magnetic flux:

\epsilon = -N * \frac{d \Phi B}{dt}

Where

ε: electromotive fore

N: number of turns in the coil

ΦB: magnetic flux

Moving the magnet faster would increase the rare of change of the magnetic flux, resulting in higher induced voltage.

Turning the magnet upside down would invert the direction of the magnetic field, reversing the voltage induced.

5 0
3 years ago
When sanitizing dishcloths or cutting boards at home using chlorine bleach, how much bleach should be added, per quart of water?
ahrayia [7]

When using chlorine bleach, the proper amount for one gallon of water is 8 ounces, or one cup. Now, since there's 4 quarts in a gallon,divide the 8 ounces by 4. You get 2. So you should put 2 ounces (or 1/4 cup) of chlorine bleach in a quart of water. Hope this helps!

4 0
3 years ago
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