How much work is done if a force of 50 N is used to move a footstool 3 M?

A body of mass m1 = 1.5 kg moving along a directed axis in the positive sense with a velocity

larisa86 [58]

Answer:

3.71 m/s in the negative direction

Explanation:

From collisions in momentum, we can establish the formula required here which is;

m1•u1 + m2•v2 = m1•v1 + m2•v2

Now, we are given;

m1 = 1.5 kg

m2 = 14 kg

u1 = 11 m/s

v1 = -1 m/s (negative due to the negative direction it is approaching)

u2 = -5 m/s (negative due to the negative direction it is moving)

Thus;

(1.5 × 11) + (14 × -5) = (1.5 × -1) + (14 × v2)

This gives;

16.5 - 70 = -1.5 + 14v2

Rearranging, we have;

16.5 + 1.5 - 70 = 14v2

-52 = 14v2

v2 = - 52/14

v2 = 3.71 m/s in the negative direction

8 0

3 years ago

Tom kicks a soccer ball on a flat, level field giving it an initial speed of 20 m/s at an angle of 35 degrees above the horizont

SVEN [57.7K]

Answer:

(a) 2.34 s

(b) 6.71 m

(c) 38.35 m

(d) 20 m/s

Explanation:

u = 20 m/s, theta = 35 degree

(a) The formula for the time of flight is given by

$T = \frac{2 u Sin\theta }{g}$

$T = \frac{2 \times 20 \times Sin35 }{9.8}$

T = 2.34 second

(b) The formula for the maximum height is given by

$H = \frac{u^{2} \times Sin^{2}\theta }{2g}$

$H = \frac{20^{2} \times Sin^{2}35 }{2 \times 9.8}$

H = 6.71 m

(c) The formula for the range is given by

$R = \frac{u^{2} \times Sin 2\theta }{g}$

$R = \frac{20^{2} \times Sin 2 \times 35}{9.8}$

R = 38.35 m

(d) It hits with the same speed at the initial speed.

8 0

3 years ago

It is important that your muscles are very warm when doing this type of stretching.

MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

ballistic stretching

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An electron moves at 0.130 c as shown in the figure (Figure 1). There are points: A, B, C, and D 2.10 μm from the electron.

Olegator [25]

Hi there!

We can use Biot-Savart's Law for a moving particle:
$B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v}\times \vec{r}}{r^2 }$

B = Magnetic field strength (T)
v = velocity of electron (0.130c = 3.9 × 10⁷ m/s)

q = charge of particle (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C)

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

r = distance from particle (2.10 μm)

There is a cross product between the velocity vector and the radius vector (not a quantity, but specifies a direction). We can write this as:

$B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }$

Where 'θ' is the angle between the velocity and radius vectors.

a)
To find the angle between the velocity and radius vector, we find the complementary angle:

θ = 90° - 60° = 30°

Plugging 'θ' into the equation along with our other values:

$B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }\\\\B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(30)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 }$

$B = \boxed{7.07 *10^{-10} T}$

b)
Repeat the same process. The angle between the velocity and radius vector is 150°, and its sine value is the same as that of sin(30°). So, the particle's produced field will be the same as that of part A.

c)

In this instance, the radius vector and the velocity vector are perpendicular so

'θ' = 90°.

$B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(90)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 } = \boxed{1.415 * 10^{-9}T}$

d)
This point is ALONG the velocity vector, so there is no magnetic field produced at this point.

Aka, the radius and velocity vectors are parallel, and since sin(0) = 0, there is no magnetic field at this point.

$\boxed{B = 0 T}$

3 0

2 years ago

The following is current scientific evidence supporting the nebular theory on the formation of the solar system. the composition

andreyandreev [35.5K]

All planets orbit the sun in a plane, all the planets orbit the sun in the same direction, most of the planets rotate in the same direction. I'm not sure when and answer ends or begins on your question so you can choose from some of the answers I gave you.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers