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horsena [70]
3 years ago
10

A uniform 2.50m ladder of mass 7.30kg is leaning against a vertical wall while making an angle of 51.0degree with the floor. A w

orker pushes the ladder up against the wall until it is vertical.
A)How much work did this person do against gravity?
____J
Physics
1 answer:
Zigmanuir [339]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

19.95 J

Explanation:

The center of mass of the ladder is initially at a height of:

h_1=\frac{L}{2}sin\theta

The center of mass of the ladder ends at a height of:

h_2= \frac{L}{2}sin90 =L/2

So, the work done is equal to the change in potential energy which is:

W = PE = mg(h_2-h_1)

now h_2-h_1= 1-sin\theta

therefore

W = [mgL/2]×[1 - sin(theta)]

W = [(7.30)(9.81)(2.50)/2]×[1-sin(51°)]

solving this we get

W = 19.95 J

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A circular coil of wire of radius 5.0 cm has 20 turns and carries a current of 2.0 A. The coil lies in a magnetic field of magni
Korvikt [17]

Answer:a. Magnetic dipole moment is 0.3412Am²

b. Torque is zero(0)N.m

Explanation: The magnetic dipole moment U is given as the product of the number of turns n times the current I times the area A

That is,

U = n*I*A

But Area A is given as pi*radius² since it is a circular coil

Radius given is 5cm converting to meter we divide by 100 so we have our radius to be 0.05m. So area A is

A = 3.142*(0.05)² =7.86*EXP {-3} m²

Current I is 2 A

Number of turns is 20

So magnetic dipole moment U is

U = 20*2*7.86*EXP {-3}=0.3142A.m²

b. Torque is given as the cross product of the magnetic field B and magnetic dipole moment U

Torque = B x U =B*U*Sine(theta)

But since the magnetic field is directed parallel to the plane of the coil from the question, it means that the angle between them is zero and sine zero is equals 0(zero) if you substitute that into the formula for torque you will find out that your torque would equals zero(0)N.m

7 0
3 years ago
A flutist assembles her flute in a room where the speed of sound is 342 m/s. When she plays the note A, it is in perfect tune wi
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

5.15348 Beats/s

4.55 mm

Explanation:

v_1 = Velocity of sound = 342 m/s

v_2 = Velocity of sound = 346 m/s

f_1 = First frequency = 440 Hz

Frequency is given by

f_2=\frac{v_2}{2L_1}\\\Rightarrow f_2=\frac{346}{2\times 0.38863}\\\Rightarrow f_2=445.15348\ Hz

Beat frequency is given by

|f_1-f_2|=|440-445.15348|=5.15348\ Beats/s

Beat frequency is 5.15348 Hz

Wavelength is given by

\lambda_1=\frac{v_1}{f}\\\Rightarrow \lambda_1=\frac{342}{440}\\\Rightarrow \lambda_1=0.77727\ m

Relation between length of the flute and wavelength is

\lambda_1=2L_1\\\Rightarrow L_1=\frac{\lambda_1}{2}\\\Rightarrow L_1=\frac{0.77727}{2}\\\Rightarrow L_1=0.38863\ m

At v = 346 m/s

\lambda_2=\frac{v_2}{f}\\\Rightarrow \lambda_2=\frac{346}{440}\\\Rightarrow \lambda_1=0.78636\ m

L_2=\frac{\lambda_2}{2}\\\Rightarrow L_2=\frac{0.78636}{2}\\\Rightarrow L_2=0.39318\ m

Difference in length is

\Delta L=L_2-L_1\\\Rightarrow \Delta L=0.39318-0.38863\\\Rightarrow \Delta L=0.00455\ m=4.55\ mm

It extends to 4.55 mm

7 0
3 years ago
A car accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 22.4 km/h in 6.1 s. find the distance it travels during this time.
stepladder [879]
You will need to add 22.4+6.1
7 0
3 years ago
[10 POINTS ❗️❗️ and brainlist :)]
ludmilkaskok [199]
The answer to this is D
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
the large,flat piece of wood within a piano serves the same purpose as(a)a bamboo reed(b)a set of wooden drum sticks(c)a guitar
sammy [17]
The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "(d) the hollow bix." The large, flat piece of wood within a piano serves the same purpose as <span>(d) the hollow bix. The piece of flat wood will help piano produce a good quality sound.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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