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My name is Ann [436]
2 years ago
10

The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe of inner radius R 5 2 cm, in m/s, is given by u(r) 5 4(1

2 r2/R2). Determine the average and maximum velocities in the pipe and the volume flow rate.
Physics
1 answer:
xxMikexx [17]2 years ago
8 0

The question is not clear and the complete clear question is;

The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow In a circular pipe of inner radius R = 2 cm, in m/s, is given By u(r) = 4(1 - r²/R²). Determine the average and maximum Velocities in the pipe and the volume flow rate.

Answer:

A) V_max = 4 m/s

B) V_avg = 2 m/s

C) Flow rate = 0.00251 m³/s

Explanation:

A) We are given that;

u(r) = 4(1 - (r²/R²))

To obtain the maximum velocity, let's apply the maximum condition for a single-variable continual real valued problem to obtain;

(d/dr)(u(r)) = 0

Thus,

(d/dr)•4(1 - (r²/R²)) = 0

4(d/dr)(1 - (r²/R²)) = 0

If we differentiate, we have;

4(0 - (2r/R²)) = 0

-8r/R² = 0

Thus, r = 0 and with that, the maximum velocity is at the centre of the pipe.

Thus, for maximum velocity, let's put 0 for r in the U(r) function.

Thus,

V_max = 4(1 - 0²/R²) = 4 - 0 = 4 m/s

B) Average velocity is given by;

V_avg = V_max/2

V_avg = 4/2 = 2 m/s

C) the flow can be calculated from;

Flow rate ΔV = A•V_avg

A is area = πr²

From question, r = 2cm = 0.02m

A = π x 0.02²

Hence,

ΔV = π x 0.02² x 2 = 0.00251 m³/s

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it will move towards the object's magnetic south

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The compass pints towards the earth geographic north because the magnetic south of the earth's magnetic field is located in there, if you placed such compass neaar the piece of ferromagnetic material, the magnetic field produced by the magnet will make the compass needle point towards its south magnetic pole, in the same fashion as it points to the earth's magnetic south. It will point to the object's south pole because the magnetic field will be stronger than the earth's (which is weak) that is because of the way magnetism works, opposite poles are attracted and similar poles will tend to separate from each other

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Answer:

Explanation:

change in flux = no of turns x area of loop x change in magnetic field

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rate of change of flux  = change of flux / time

= 3.9 x 10⁻³ / .10

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3 years ago
A 0.0250-kg bullet is accelerated from rest to a speed of 550 m/s in a 3.00-kg rifle. The pain of the rifle’s kick is much worse
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Answer:

a) 4.583 m/s

b) 31.505 J

c) 0.491 m/s

d) 3.375 J

e)

   p_player = (110 kg)(8 m/s) = 880 kg m/s

   p_ball = (0.41 kg)(25 m/s) = 10.25 kg m/s

Explanation:

HI!

a)

We can calculate the recoil velocity by conservation of momentum, remember that p=mv.

The momentum of the bullet is:

p_b = (0.0250 kg)*(550 m/s )

The momentum of the rifle is:

p_r = (3 kg) * v

Since the total initial momentum is zero:

p_b = p_r

That is:

v = (550 m/s ) (0.0250 kg/ 3 kg ) = 4.583 m/s

b)

The kinetic energy gained by the rifle is:

K = (1/2) m v^2 = (1/2) *(3 kg) *(4.583 m/s)^2 = 31.505 J

c)

We use the same formula as in a), but with m=28kg instead of 3 kg

v = (550 m/s ) (0.0250 kg/ 28 kg ) = 0.491 m/s

d)

Again, the same formula as b, but with m=28 and v=0.491 m/s

K = 3.375 J

e)

p_player = (110 kg)(8 m/s) = 880 kg m/s

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I believe that the kinetic energy is more related to the problem than the momentum. The relation between these two quantities is:

K = p^2/(2m)

usiing this relation, we get:

K_player = 3520 J

K_ball =  128.125 J

Therefore the kinetic energy of the player is around 27 time larger than the kinetic energy of the ball, that being said, the pain of being tackled by that player is around 27 times greater that being hit by the ball!

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