All categories

3 years ago

Help ASAP

Physics

1 answer:

EastWind [94]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Elastic potential energy, $E=2.35\times 10^{-8}\ J$

Explanation:

Charge, $q=9.4\times 10^{-10}\ C$

Potential, V = 50 V

It is required to find the electric potential energy in a capacitor stored in it. The formula of the electric potential energy in a capacitor is given by :

$E=\dfrac{1}{2}qV\\\\E=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 9.4\times 10^{-10}\times 50\\\\E=2.35\times 10^{-8}\ J$

So, the electric potential energy stored in the capacitor is $2.35\times 10^{-8}\ J$

You might be interested in

How do solve for a in yf=yi+vi *t + 1/2*at^2. Also, What’s this formulas name

ddd [48]

Answer:

Kinematics

Explanation:

8 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Light is reflected from a crystal of table salt with an index of refraction of 1.544. An analyser is placed to intercept the ref

Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

hola me llamo bruno y tu?

Explanation:

pero yo soy de mexico

5 0

3 years ago

Write an expression for the magnitude of the normal force, fn, acting on the block, in terms of f2 and the other variables of th

mario62 [17]

<span>If the force is fn, then it acting on the block, in the term of f2 and the other variables of the problems. then we assume the surface is rest on it's rigid, then the magnitude of the force is, fn =f2 sin(?) +m g</span>

7 0

4 years ago

Most grandfather clocks have pendulums with adjustable lengths. One such clock gains 10 min per day when the length of its pendu

7nadin3 [17]

The length to which the pendulum will be adjusted to keep perfect time is 29.59 inches. See the explanation below.

<h3>What is the justification for the above answer?</h3>

T1 = 2πR√(L1/GM)

and

T2 = 2πR√(L1/GM)

T1/T2 = √(L1/L2).

If the pendulum has an efficient period, that means it executes with perfect frequency.

Thus,

T2 = (24 * 60)/x

= 1440/x

This means that in one day, there are perfect cycles of represented by "x". Note that there are 1440 minutes in one day.

If the other Pendulum is slower by 10 minutes, that means

T1 = 1450/x

Hence

(1450/x)/(1440/x) = √(L1/L2).

⇒ 1450/1440 = √(L1/L2).

Thus,

(1450/1440)² = 30/L

L = 30/(1450/1440)²

L = 30/(1.00694444444)²

L = 30/1.01393711419

L = 29.5876337695

L $\approx$ 29.59 inches.

Hence, the pendulum will need to be adjusted by 29.59 inches to ensure that the clock keeps perfect time.

Learn more about pendulum problems:

brainly.com/question/16617199

#SPJ4

3 0

2 years ago

A square loop of length 0.1 m on each side is sitting in a magnetic field that is increasing at a rate of 0.1 T/second. What can

Zolol [24]

Answer:

The induced emf can be found by Faraday’s Law.

$\epsilon = -\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt}$

$\Phi_B = BA = B(0.1)^2 = 0.01B$

The magnetic field is increasing at a rate of 0.1T/s. So,

$\frac{dB}{dt} = 0.1$

Finally,

$\epsilon = \frac{dBA}{dt} = 0.01\frac{dB}{dt} = 0.01\times 0.1 = 0.001 V$

Explanation:

Faraday’s Law states that a change in the magnetic flux induces an emf in the circuit. The magnetic flux is the multiplication of magnetic field and the area of the loop. The area of the loop is simple, and the change of magnetic field as a function of time is given in the question.

The minus sign in front of the Faraday’s Law means that the induced current always opposes the change of the magnetic flux. Since we do not know the direction of the magnetic field in this question, we cannot find the direction of the induced emf on the loop.

4 0

3 years ago