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3 years ago

1. What is an op-amp? List the characteristics of an ideal op-amp

Engineering

1 answer:

Alexus [3.1K]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

An opamp is an operation amplifier. It takes an input signal and amplifies it on the output side.

An ideal opamp should have infinite impedance at its input, infinite gain on the output, and zero impedance on the output

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Describe three differences between liquids and gases in fluid power systems.<br> Help !!!

scoundrel [369]

Gases, liquids and solids are all made up of atoms, molecules, and/or ions, but the behaviors of these particles differ in the three phases. ... gas are well separated with no regular arrangement. liquid are close together with no regular arrangement. solid are tightly packed, usually in a regular pattern.

3 0

3 years ago

A 4-pole, 3-phase induction motor operates from a supply whose frequency is 60 Hz. calculate: 1- the speed at which the magnetic

DiKsa [7]

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

1) The synchronous speed of an induction motor is the speed of the magnetic field of the stator. It is given by:

$n_s=\frac{120f_s}{p}\\ Where\ p\ is \ the \ number\ of\ machine\ pole, f_s\ is\ the\ supply \ frequency\\and\ n_s\ is \ the \ synchronous\ speed(speed \ of\ stator\ magnetic \ field)\\Given: f_s=60\ Hz, p=4. Therefore\\\\n_s=\frac{120*60}{4}=1800\ rpm$

2) The speed of the rotor is the motor speed. The slip is given by:

$Slip=\frac{n_s-n_m}{n_s}. \\ n_m\ is\ the \ motor\ speed(rotor\ speed)\\Slip = 0.05, n_s= 1800\ rpm\\ \\0.05=\frac{1800-n_m}{1800}\\\\ 1800-n_m=90\\\\n_m=1800-90=1710\ rpm$

3) The frequency of the rotor is given as:

$f_r=slip*f_s\\f_r=0.04*60=2.4\ Hz$

4) At standstill, the speed of the motor is 0, therefore the slip is 1.

The frequency of the rotor is given as:

$f_r=slip*f_s\\f_r=1*60=60\ Hz$

6 0

3 years ago

A cylindrical metal specimen having an original diameter of 12.8 mm and gauge length of 50.80 mm is pulled in tension until frac

Sedaia [141]

Answer:

%Reduction in area = 73.41%

%Reduction in elongation = 42.20%

Explanation:

Given

Original diameter = 12.8 mm

Gauge length = 50.80mm

Diameter at the point of fracture = 6.60 mm (0.260 in.)

Fractured gauge length = 72.14 mm.

%Reduction in Area is given as:

((do/2)² - (d1/2)²)/(do/2)²

Calculating percent reduction in area

do = 12.8mm, d1 = 6.6mm

So,

%RA = ((12.8/2)² - 6.6/2)²)/(12.8/2)²

%RA = 0.734130859375

%RA = 73.41%

Calculating percent reduction in elongation

%Reduction in elongation is given as:

((do) - (d1))/(d1)

do = 72.14mm, d1 = 50.80mm

So,

%RA = ((72.24) - (50.80))/(50.80)

%RA = 0.422047244094488

%RA = 42.20%

3 0

4 years ago

Which of the following are true about the American Wire Gauge?

harina [27]

Answer:

A. smallest wire is No. 12

7 0

3 years ago

The current entering the positive terminal of a device is i(t)= 6e^-2t mA and the voltage across the device is v(t)= 10di/dtV.

liberstina [14]

Answer:

a) 2,945 mC

b) P(t) = -720*e^(-4t) uW

c) -180 uJ

Explanation:

Given:

i (t) = 6*e^(-2*t)

v (t) = 10*di / dt

Find:

( a) Find the charge delivered to the device between t=0 and t=2 s.

( b) Calculate the power absorbed.

( c) Determine the energy absorbed in 3 s.

Solution:

- The amount of charge Q delivered can be determined by:

dQ = i(t) . dt

$Q = \int\limits^2_0 {i(t)} \, dt = \int\limits^2_0 {6*e^(-2t)} \, dt = 6*\int\limits^2_0 {e^(-2t)} \, dt$

- Integrate and evaluate the on the interval:

$= 6 * (-0.5)*e^-2t = - 3*( 1 / e^4 - 1) = 2.945 C$

- The power can be calculated by using v(t) and i(t) as follows:

v(t) = 10* di / dt = 10*d(6*e^(-2*t)) /dt

v(t) = 10*(-12*e^(-2*t)) = -120*e^-2*t mV

P(t) = v(t)*i(t) = (-120*e^-2*t) * 6*e^(-2*t)

P(t) = -720*e^(-4t) uW

- The amount of energy W absorbed can be evaluated using P(t) as follows:

$W = \int\limits^3_0 {P(t)} \, dt = \int\limits^2_0 {-720*e^(-4t)} \, dt = -720*\int\limits^2_0 {e^(-4t)} \, dt$

- Integrate and evaluate the on the interval:

$W = -180*e^-4t = - 180*( 1 / e^12 - 1) = -180uJ$

6 0

4 years ago