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timama [110]
2 years ago
10

If you are interested only in the temperature range of 20° to 40°C and the ADC has a 0 to 3V input range, design a signal condit

ioning circuit to maximize the SQNR (the temperature sensor’s output will be the input of the signal conditioning circuit, and the signal conditioning circuit’s output will be applied to the ADCs input).

Engineering
1 answer:
mario62 [17]2 years ago
3 0

Explanation:

Temperature range → 0 to 80'c

respective voltage output → 0.2v to 0.5v

required temperature range 20'c to 40'c

Where T = 20'c respective voltage

\begin{aligned}v_{20} &=0.2+\frac{0.5-0.8}{80} \times 20 \\&=0.2+\frac{0.3}{80} \times 20 \\V_{20} &=0.275 v\end{aligned}

\begin{aligned}\text { when } T=40^{\circ} C & \text { . } \\v_{40} &=0.2+\frac{0.5-0.2}{80} \times 40 \\&=0.35 V\end{aligned}

Therefore, Sensor output changes from 0.275v to 0.35volts for the ADC the required i/p should cover the dynamic range of ADC (ie - 0v to 3v)

so we have to design a circuit which transfers input voltage 0.275volts - 0.35v to 0 - 3v

Therefore, the formula for the circuit will be

\begin{array}{l}v_{0}=\left(v_{i n}-0.275\right) G \\\sigma=\ldots \frac{3-0}{0.35-0.275}=3 / 0.075=40 \\v_{0}=\left(v_{i n}-0.275\right) 40\end{array}

The simplest circuit will be a op-amp

NOTE: Refer the figure attached

Vs is sensor output

Vr is the reference volt, Vr = 0.275v

\begin{aligned}v_{0}=& v_{s}-v_{v}\left(1+\frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}\right) \\\Rightarrow & \frac{1+\frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}}{2}=40 \\& \frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}=39 \quad \Rightarrow\end{aligned}

choose R2, R1 such that it will maintain required  ratio

The output Vo can be connected to voltage buffer if you required better isolation.

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A 0.25in diameter steel rod BC is securely attached between two identical 1in diameter copper rods (AB and CD). Find the torque
Helen [10]

Answer:

Tmax= 46.0 lb-in

Explanation:

Given:

- The diameter of the steel rod BC d1 = 0.25 in

- The diameter of the copper rod AB and CD d2 = 1 in

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- Allowable shear stress of copper τ_c = 12ksi

Find:

Find the torque T_max

Solution:

- The relation of allowable shear stress is given by:

                             τ = 16*T / pi*d^3

                             T = τ*pi*d^3 / 16

- Design Torque T for Copper rod:

                             T_c = τ_c*pi*d_c^3 / 16

                             T_c = 12*1000*pi*1^3 / 16

                             T_c = 2356.2 lb.in

- Design Torque T for Steel rod:

                             T_s = τ_s*pi*d_s^3 / 16

                             T_s = 15*1000*pi*0.25^3 / 16

                             T_s = 46.02 lb.in

- The design torque must conform to the allowable shear stress for both copper and steel. The maximum allowable would be:

                             T = min ( 2356.2 , 46.02 )

                             T = 46.02 lb-in

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3 years ago
If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.
alekssr [168]

Answer:

The correct answer is option 'B': Load is far from fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum

Explanation:

A lever works on the principle of balancing of torques. The torque about the fulcrum by the load should be equal to the torque by the applied effort. Since we know that the torque is proportional to both the force and the distance it is applied from the distance from the axis of rotation. A lever is used when we need to lift a heavy load by utilizing this effect of the lever arm.

A mechanical disadvantage occurs when we are not able to lift the weight easily due to the fact we apply effort near the fulcrum.

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3 years ago
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Consider a simply supported rectangular beam with a span length of 10 ft, a width of 8 in, and an effective depth of 20 in. Norm
yulyashka [42]

Answer:

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Alex_Xolod [135]

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Degger [83]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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Diameter of pipe is 10mm.

Velocity of the pipe is 1m/s.

Temperature of water is 200°C.

The kinematic viscosity at temperature 200°C is 1.557\times10^{-7}m2/s.

Calculation:

Step1

Expression for Reynolds number is given as follows:

Re=\frac{vd}{\nu}

Here, v is velocity, \nu is kinematic viscosity, d is diameter and Re is Reynolds number.

Substitute the values in the above equation as follows:

Re=\frac{vd}{\nu}

Re=\frac{1\times(10mm)(\frac{1m}{1000mm})}{1.557\times10^{-7}}

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Hence, the given flow is turbulent flow.

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