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Alik [6]
3 years ago
12

Mendeleev noticed that if he organized the elements by atomic weight certain patterns emerged. For instance, elements in the sam

e group (family) appeared to have the same
A) valence.
B) melting point.
C) isotopic ratio.
D) number of neutrons.
Physics
2 answers:
Inga [223]3 years ago
6 0
I've had a similar question on an assignment myself, so I'm going to assume it had the same idea.

When you organize them in such a way, the pattern that emerges tells you elements organized by atomic weight have the same number of valence electrons.

Hope this helps!
lys-0071 [83]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Is option A

Explanation:

The correct answer is valence. Our current periodic table puts these elements in the same column on the periodic table. We now know they have the same number of valence electrons.

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At what temperature will silver have a resistivity that is two times the resistivity of iron at room temperature? (Assume room t
emmasim [6.3K]

Answer:

The temperature of silver at this given resistivity is 2971.1 ⁰C

Explanation:

The resistivity of silver is calculated as follows;

R_t = R_o[1 + \alpha(T-T_o)]\\\\

where;

Rt is the resistivity of silver at the given temperature

Ro is the resistivity of silver at room temperature

α is the temperature coefficient of resistance

To is the room temperature

T is the temperature at which the resistivity of silver will be two times the resistivity of iron at room temperature

R_t = R_o[1 + \alpha(T-T_o)]\\\\\R_t = 1.59*10^{-8}[1 + 0.0038(T-20)]

Resistivity of iron at room temperature = 9.71 x 10⁻⁸ ohm.m

When silver's resistivity becomes 2 times the resistivity of iron, we will have the following equations;

R_t,_{silver} = 2R_o,_{iron}\\\\1.59*10^{-8}[1 + 0.0038(T-20)] =(2 *9.71*10^{-8})\\\\\ \ (divide \ through \ by \ 1.59*10^{-8})\\\\1 + 0.0038(T-20) = 12.214\\\\1 + 0.0038T - 0.076 = 12.214\\\\0.0038T +0.924 = 12.214\\\\0.0038T  = 12.214 - 0.924\\\\0.0038T = 11.29\\\\T = \frac{11.29}{0.0038} \\\\T = 2971.1 \ ^0C

Therefore, the temperature of silver at this given resistivity is 2971.1 ⁰C

8 0
4 years ago
A bird flies from the South Pole to the North Pole. Part of the journey is 1000 miles that takes 2 weeks. What is the bird’s vel
viktelen [127]
1000 miles = 1610km = 1.61x10^6m
2 weeks = 14 days = 14x24x1440

V=d/t = 1.61x10^6/14x24x1440
= 3.33m/s
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Brianna has difficulty focusing in school and has struggled to learn to read. How would this disorder be classified in the DSM-5
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Neurodevelopmental Disorder
8 0
3 years ago
Physics B 2020 Unit 3 Test
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

1)

When a charge is in motion in a magnetic field, the charge experiences a force of magnitude

F=qvB sin \theta

where here:

For the proton in this problem:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the proton

v = 300 m/s is the speed of the proton

B = 19 T is the magnetic field

\theta=65^{\circ} is the angle between the directions of v and B

So the force is

F=(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(300)(19)(sin 65^{\circ})=8.28\cdot 10^{-16} N

2)

The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet has field lines going from the North pole towards the South Pole.

The density of the field lines at any point tells how strong is the magnetic field at that point.

If we observe the field lines around a magnet, we observe that:

- The density of field lines is higher near the Poles

- The density of field lines is lower far from the Poles

Therefore, this means that the magnetic field of a magnet is stronger near the North and South Pole.

3)

The right hand rule gives the direction of the  force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.

It can be applied as follows:

- Direction of index finger = direction of motion of the charge

- Direction of middle finger = direction of magnetic field

- Direction of thumb = direction of the force (for a negative charge, the direction must be reversed)

In this problem:

- Direction of motion = to the right (index finger)

- Direction of field = downward (middle finger)

- Direction of force = into the screen (thumb)

4)

The radius of a particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

r=\frac{mv}{qB}

where here we have:

m=6.64\cdot 10^{-22} kg is the mass of the alpha particle

v=2155 m/s is the speed of the alpha particle

q=2\cdot 1.602\cdot 10^{-19}=3.204\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the alpha particle

B = 12.2 T is the strength of the magnetic field

Substituting, we find:

r=\frac{(6.64\cdot 10^{-22})(2155)}{(3.204\cdot 10^{-19})(12.2)}=0.366 m

5)

The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in circular motion in a magnetic field is:

f=\frac{qB}{2\pi m}

where here:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the electron

B = 0.0045 T is the strength of the magnetic field

m=9.31\cdot 10^{-31} kg is the mass of the electron

Substituting, we find:

f=\frac{(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(0.0045)}{2\pi (9.31\cdot 10^{-31})}=1.23\cdot 10^8 Hz

6)

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its path has a helical shape, because it is the composition of two motions:

1- A uniform motion in a certain direction

2- A circular motion in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field

The second motion is due to the presence of the magnetic force. However, we know that the direction of the magnetic force depends on the sign of the charge: when the sign of the charge is changed, the direction of the force is reversed.

Therefore in this case, when the particle gains the opposite charge, the circular motion 2) changes sign, so the path will remains helical, but it reverses direction.

7)

The electromotive force induced in a conducting loop due to electromagnetic induction is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz:

\epsilon=-\frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}

where

N is the number of turns in the loop

\Delta \Phi is the change in magnetic flux through the loop

\Delta t is the time elapsed

From the formula, we see that the emf is induced in the loop (and so, a current is also induced) only if \Delta \Phi \neq 0, which means only if there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop: this occurs if the magnetic field is changing, or if the area of the loop is changing, or if the angle between the loop and the field is changing.

8)

The flux is calculated as

\Phi = BA sin \theta

where

B = 5.5 T is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

\theta=18^{\circ} is the angle between the  direction of the field and the plane of the loop

Here the loop is rectangular with lenght 15 cm and width 8 cm, so the area is

A=(0.15 m)(0.08 m)=0.012 m^2

So the flux is

\Phi = (5.5)(0.012)(sin 18^{\circ})=0.021 Wb

See the last 7 answers in the attached document.

Download docx
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5 0
3 years ago
Pa help po science po yan pang grade 7
AveGali [126]

Answer:

table 1:

1. 100/15 = 6.7 m/s

2. 100/12 = 8.3 m/s

3. 100/9 = 11.1 m/s

table 2:

1. 100/8 = 12.5 m/s

2. 100/6 = 16.7 m/s

3. 100/4 = 25 m/s

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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