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mojhsa [17]
3 years ago
11

A line of charge starts at x = +x0 and extends to positive infinity. The linear charge density is λ = λ0x0/x. Determine the elec

tric field at the origin. (Use ke, λ0, and x0 as necessary.)
Physics
2 answers:
kari74 [83]3 years ago
5 0

Explanation:

it is given that, the linear charge density of a charge, \lambda=\dfrac{\lambda_ox_o}{x}

Firstly, we can define the electric field for a small element and then integrate for the whole. The very small electric field is given by :

dE=\dfrac{k\ dq}{x^2}..........(1)

The linear charge density is given by :

\lambda=\dfrac{dq}{dx}

dq=\lambda.dx=\dfrac{\lambda_ox_o}{x}dx

Integrating equation (1) from x = x₀ to x = infinity

E=\int\limits^\infty_{x_o} {\dfrac{k\lambda_ox_o}{x^3}}.dx

E=-\dfrac{k\lambda_ox_o}{2}\dfrac{1}{x^2}|_{x_o}^\infty}

E=\dfrac{k\lambda_o}{2x_o}

Hence, this is the required solution.

Anna007 [38]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

E=-K_e\dfrac{\lambda_0 }{2x_0}N/C

Explanation:

We know that electric field given as

E=K_e\int_{x_1}^{x_2}\dfrac{\lambda }{x^2}dx

Here given that

\lambda =\dfrac{\lambda _0x_0}{x}

So

E=K_e\int_{x_1}^{x_2}\dfrac{\lambda_0x_0 }{x^3}dx

E=K_e\int_{x_0}^{\infty }\dfrac{\lambda_0x_0 }{x^3}dx

Now by integrating we get

E=-K_e\lambda_0\left [ \dfrac{1 }{2x^2} \right ]^{\infty }_x_0dx

E=-K_e\dfrac{\lambda_0 }{2x_0}dx

So the electric field at the origin E

E=-K_e\dfrac{\lambda_0 }{2x_0}N/C

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1. Consider the point exactly halfway between the two wires. Can you adjust the current so that, with current passing through ea
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer:

hello your question is incomplete attached below is missing part of the question

answer:

1 )  Magnetic field due to long current carrying wire : B = \frac{U_{0} I}{2\pi d}

Therefore the net magnetic field due the both wires ; B = B_{1} + B_{2} . when we adjust the current I_{1} = I_{2} then the Netfield (B ) = zero

2) The distance between the field lines are not equally spaced and this is because the separation between field lines increases with the increase in the distance between the wires

3) Increase in current through the wire will lead to increase in force and this can be explained via this equation

F = \frac{U_{0}I_{1}I_{2}   }{2\pi d }

Explanation:

1 )  Magnetic field due to long current carrying wire : B = \frac{U_{0} I}{2\pi d}

Therefore the net magnetic field due the both wires ; B = B_{1} + B_{2} . when we adjust the current I_{1} = I_{2} then the Netfield (B ) = zero

2) The distance between the field lines are not equally spaced and this is because the separation between field lines increases with the increase in the distance between the wires

3) Increase in current through the wire will lead to increase in force and this can be explained via this equation

F = \frac{U_{0}I_{1}I_{2}   }{2\pi d }

8 0
3 years ago
An object with a mass of 32 kg has an initial energy of 500). At the end of the experimentthe velocity of the object is recorded
Alik [6]

Answer:

 F = 1.68 N

Explanation:

Let's solve this exercise in parts.

Let's use the concept of conservation of the mechanical nerve

initial

    Em₀ = 500 J

The energy is totally kinetic

     Em₀ = K = ½ m v₀²

     v₀ = \sqrt{\frac{2 Em_{o} }{m} }

     v₀ = √ (2 500/32)

     v₀ = 5.59 m / s

now with kinematics we can find a space

      v² = v₀² - 2 a x

the negative sign is because the body is stopping

       a =( \frac{v_{o}^{2} - v^{2}   }{2x} )  

let's calculate

       a = (5.59² - 5.1²) / 2 50  

       a = 0.0524 m / s²

Finally let's use Newton's second law

     F = ma

     F = 32 0.0524

     F = 1.68 N

7 0
3 years ago
How can it be so hard to drag rubber across smooth glass if friction is caused by surface roughness?​
jonny [76]

Answer:

becuz of less friction of glass and more friction of rubber

3 0
3 years ago
Hi❤️
Norma-Jean [14]

Answer:

length

Explanation:

used to measure outer dimensions of objects

7 0
3 years ago
Dashun Mack: Attempt
Montano1993 [528]

The time elapsed when the ball reaches the window is 1.55s

As per the question:

Final velocity, v = 11 m/s

Height, h = 29m

Acceleration, a = g = -9.8 m/s

From the third equation of motion:

v² = u² +2as

u² = v² - 2as

u² = (11)² - 2 × (-9.8) × (29)

u² = 689.4

u = √689.4

u = 26.25 m/s

Now, from the first equation of motion:

v = u + at

t=\frac{v-u}{-g}

t = \frac{11 -26.25}{-9.8}

t = 1.55 s

Therefore, the time elapsed when the ball reaches the window is 1.55s.

Read more about Equations of Motion:

brainly.com/question/13436432

#SPJ9

4 0
1 year ago
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