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Ede4ka [16]
3 years ago
10

I know that this is easy to do but can anyone help me out with this.

Physics
2 answers:
sergeinik [125]3 years ago
5 0
For future questions. You would take the # after you put in the rock and subtract by the # before. (# on beaker)
galben [10]3 years ago
4 0
10 g/cm cubed. the rock makes it go up 10 mL
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The blackbody curve for a star named Zeta is shown below. The most intense radiation for this star occurs in what spectral band?
zmey [24]

Answer:Visible lighlight

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
A floating ice block is pushed through a displacement d = (14 m) i hat - (11 m) j along a straight embankment by rushing water,
Alika [10]

Explanation:

Given that,

Displacement in ice block, d=14i-11j

Force exerted by water, F=158i-179j

To find,

Work done by the force during the displacement.

Solve,

We know that the product of force and displacement is called work done. It is also equal to the dot product of force and displacement as :

W=F.d

W=(158i-179j).(14i-11j)

We know that, i.i = j.j = k.k = 1

W=2212+1969=4181\ J

So, the work done by the force on the block during the displacement is 4181 Joules.

7 0
2 years ago
Billy picks up a 40 lb. dumbbell (mass = 18.14 kg). The center of his hand, where the dumbbell is held, is 56 cm (0.56 m) from t
umka21 [38]

Answer:

<h2>Force due to biceps is given as</h2><h2>F = 1991.05 N</h2>

Explanation:

For balancing the force we know that

Torque due to weight hold on his hand = torque due to force applied by biceps

So here we will have

mg \times L = F \times d

so we have

18.14 \times 9.8 \times 0.56 = F \times (0.05)

F = 1991.05 N

8 0
3 years ago
An electron moves through a uniform electric field vector E = (2.80î + 5.20ĵ) V/m and a uniform magnetic field vector B = 0.400k
alina1380 [7]

Answer:

1.758820×10^11(-2.5i-0.8j) m/s^2

Explanation:

From the question, the parameters given are; E=(2.80i+ 5.20j) v/m, a uniform magnetic field,B= 0.400K T, acceleration, a= ??? and velocity vector, v= 11.0i metre per seconds (m/s)...

We can solve this problem using the formula below;

Ma= q[E+V × B] ---------------(1).

Note: q is negative, m= mass of electron.

Making acceleration,a the subject of the formula and substituting the parameters into equation (1);

a= -e/m × (2.5i + 5.2j +11.0i × 0.400K)

a= -e/m × (2.5i+5.2j-4.4j)

a= e/m × (-2.5i - 0.8j)

e/m= 1.758820×10^11 c/kg

Therefore, slotting in the value of charge to mass(e/m) ratio;

a= 1.7588×10^11×(-2.5i-0.8j) m/s^2

7 0
3 years ago
Water moves through a constricted pipe in steady, ideal flow. At the
Irina-Kira [14]

A) Speed in the lower section: 0.638 m/s

B) Speed in the higher section: 2.55 m/s

C) Volume flow rate: 1.8\cdot 10^{-3} m^3/s

Explanation:

A)

To solve the problem, we can use Bernoulli's equation, which states that

p_1 + \rho g h_1 + \frac{1}{2}\rho v_1^2 = p_2 + \rho g h_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho v_2^2

where

p_1=1.75\cdot 10^4 Pa is the pressure in the lower section of the tube

h_1 = 0 is the heigth of the lower section

\rho=1000 kg/m^3 is the density of water

g=9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity

v_1 is the speed of the water in the lower pipe

p_2 is the pressure in the higher section

h_2 = 0.250 m is the height in the higher pipe

v_2 is hte speed in the higher section

We can re-write the equation as

v_1^2-v_2^2=\frac{2(p_2-p_1)+\rho g h_2}{\rho} (1)

Also we can use the continuity equation, which state that the volume flow rate is constant:

A_1 v_1 = A_2 v_2

where

A_1 = \pi r_1^2 is the cross-section of the lower pipe, with

r_1 = 3.00 cm =0.03 m is the radius of the lower pipe (half the diameter)

A_2 = \pi r_2^2 is the cross-section of the higher pipe, with

r_2 = 1.50 cm = 0.015 m (radius of the higher pipe)

So we get

r_1^2 v_1 = r_2^2 v_2

And so

v_2 = \frac{r_1^2}{r_2^2}v_1 (2)

Substituting into (1), we find the speed in the lower section:

v_1^2-(\frac{r_1^2}{r_2^2})^2v_1^2=\frac{2(p_2-p_1)+\rho g h_2}{\rho}\\v_1=\sqrt{\frac{2(p_2-p_1+\rho g h_2)}{\rho(1-\frac{r_1^4}{r_2^4})}}=0.638 m/s

B)

Now we can use equation (2) to find the speed in the lower section:

v_2 = \frac{r_1^2}{r_2^2}v_1

Substituting

v1 = 0.775 m/s

And the values of the radii, we find:

v_2=\frac{0.03^2}{0.015^2}(0.638)=2.55 m/s

C)

The volume flow rate of the water passing through the pipe is given by

V=Av

where

A is the cross-sectional area

v is the speed of the water

We can take any point along the pipe since the volume  flow rate is constant, so

r_1=0.03 cm

v_1=0.638 m/s

Therefore, the volume flow rate is

V=\pi r_1^2 v_1 = \pi (0.03)^2 (0.638)=1.8\cdot 10^{-3} m^3/s

Learn more about pressure in a liquid:

brainly.com/question/9805263

#LearnwithBrainly

0 0
2 years ago
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