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Anon25 [30]
3 years ago
15

How to divide electrons into energy levels?

Physics
1 answer:
lara31 [8.8K]3 years ago
6 0
In Bohr's atomic model, he proposed that the electrons are revolving around the nucleus in their respective orbitals. There are 5 kinds of orbitals: the s, p, d and f orbitals. They differ in their energy level, shape and number of subshells. Each subshell holds two oppositely spinning electrons. The s has 1 subshell, p has 3, d has 5 and f has 7. You arrange the orbitals into energy levels just like how you write them in an electronic configuration.

In the first energy level, you only have one 1s orbital. In the second energy level, you have one 2s and one 2p orbital, the 2p having more energy than 2s. The other levels are shown in the picture.

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You have a mass of 95 kg.<br> a. What is your weight on Earth?
svp [43]

Answer:

931.63N

Hope this helps :D

8 0
3 years ago
The aqueduct passes under Johnson Road in Lancaster through a siphon. The maximum capacity of the aqueduct is 350 m3/s. The heig
Mariulka [41]

Answer:

D ≈ 8.45 m

L ≈ 100.02 m

Explanation:

Given

Q = 350 m³/s (volumetric water flow rate passing through the stretch of channel, maximum capacity of the aqueduct)

y₁ - y₂ = h = 2.00 m (the height difference from the upper to the lower channels)

x = 100.00 m (distance between the upper and the lower channels)

We assume that:

  • the upper and the lower channels are at the same pressure (the atmospheric pressure).
  • the velocity of water in the upper channel is zero (v₁ = 0 m/s).
  • y₁ = 2.00 m  (height of the upper channel)
  • y₂ = 0.00 m  (height of the lower channel)
  • g = 9.81 m/s²
  • ρ = 1000 Kg/m³ (density of water)

We apply Bernoulli's equation as follows between the point 1 (the upper channel) and the point 2 (the lower channel):

P₁ + (ρ*v₁²/2) + ρ*g*y₁ = P₂ + (ρ*v₂²/2) + ρ*g*y₂

Plugging the known values into the equation and simplifying we get

Patm + (1000 Kg/m³*(0 m/s)²/2) + (1000 Kg/m³)*(9.81 m/s²)*(2 m) = Patm + (1000 Kg/m³*v₂²/2) + (1000 Kg/m³)*(9.81 m/s²)*(0 m)

⇒ v₂ = 6.264 m/s

then we apply the formula

Q = v*A  ⇒   A = Q/v ⇒   A = Q/v₂

⇒   A = (350 m³/s)/(6.264 m/s)

⇒   A = 55.873 m²

then, we get the diameter of the pipe as follows

A = π*D²/4   ⇒   D = 2*√(A/π)

⇒   D = 2*√(55.873 m²/π)

⇒   D = 8.434 m ≈ 8.45 m

Now, the length of the pipe can be obtained as follows

L² = x² + h²

⇒ L² = (100.00 m)² + (2.00 m)²

⇒ L ≈ 100.02 m

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 26-g steel-jacketed bullet is fired with a velocity of 630 m/s toward a steel plate and ricochets along path CD with a velocit
Alecsey [184]

Answer:

  F = - 3.53 10⁵ N

Explanation:

This problem must be solved using the relationship between momentum and the amount of movement.

          I = F t = Δp

To find the time we use that the average speed in the contact is constant (v = 600m / s), let's use the uniform movement ratio

        v = d / t

        t = d / v

Reduce SI system

          m = 26 g ( 1 kg/1000g) = 26 10⁻³ kg

          d = 50 mm ( 1m/ 1000 mm) = 50 10⁻³ m

Let's calculate

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With this value we use the momentum and momentum relationship

        F t = m v - m v₀

As the bullet bounces the speed sign after the crash is negative

       F = m (v-vo) / t

       F = 26 10⁻³ (-500 - 630) / 8.33 10⁻⁵

       F = - 3.53 10⁵ N

The negative sign indicates that the force is exerted against the bullet

5 0
3 years ago
Why do electric charges that move through a magnetic field produce an electric current? A. The magnetic field exerts a force on
Alex Ar [27]

Answer: B

Explanation: a p e x :)

4 0
2 years ago
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PLS HELP I HAVE EXAM ILL GIVE U BRAINLIST
stiv31 [10]

Explanation:

False

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3 years ago
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