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Naya [18.7K]
3 years ago
12

A pendulum makes 50 complete swings in 2 min 40 s. What is the time period for 1 complete swing?

Physics
2 answers:
wolverine [178]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

50 swings = 2 mins 40 secs

=> 50 swings = 160 secs

=> 1 swing = 160 / 50 secs

=> 1 swing -= 3.2 secs

If my answer helped, kindly mark me as the brainliest!!

Thank You!!

krok68 [10]3 years ago
3 0
Please give the other person his brianliest
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C. It is caused by flowing negatively charged particles.

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Hence, the correct answer is "C. It is caused by flowing negatively charged particles."

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An airplane is moving at 350 km/hr. If a bomb is
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Answers:

a) -171.402 m/s

b) 17.49 s

c) 1700.99 m

Explanation:

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y=y_{o}+V_{oy}t-\frac{1}{2}gt^{2} (1)

x=V_{ox}t (2)

V_{f}=V_{oy}-gt (3)

Where:

y=0 m is the bomb's final jeight

y_{o}=1.5 km \frac{1000 m}{1 km}=1500 m is the bomb'e initial height

V_{oy}=0 m/s is the bomb's initial vertical velocity, since the airplane was moving horizontally

t is the time

g=9.8 m/s^{2} is the acceleration due gravity

x is the bomb's range

V_{ox}=350 \frac{km}{h} \frac{1000 m}{1 km} \frac{1 h}{3600 s}=97.22 m/s is the bomb's initial horizontal velocity

V_{f} is the bomb's fina velocity

Knowing this, let's begin with the answers:

<h3>b) Time</h3>

With the conditions given above, equation (1) is now written as:

y_{o}=\frac{1}{2}gt^{2} (4)

Isolating t:

t=\sqrt{\frac{2 y_{o}}{g}} (5)

t=\sqrt{\frac{2 (1500 m)}{9.8 m/s^{2}}} (6)

t=17.49 s (7)

<h3>a) Final velocity</h3>

Since V_{oy}=0 m/s, equation (3) is written as:

V_{f}=-gt (8)

V_{f}=-(97.22)(17.49 s) (9)

V_{f}=-171.402 m/s (10) The negative sign ony indicates the direction is downwards

<h3>c) Range</h3>

Substituting (7) in (2):

x=(97.22 m/s)(17.49 s) (11)

x=1700.99 m (12)

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