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svet-max [94.6K]
4 years ago
7

A large magnetic flux change through a coil must induce a greater emf in the coil than a small flux change. A) True B) False

Physics
1 answer:
bixtya [17]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Faraday's law gives the relationship between the induced emf and the rate of change of magnetic flux i.e.

\epsilon=\dfrac{-d\phi}{dt}

The given statement "A large magnetic flux change through a coil must induce a greater emf in the coil than a small flux change" is false. The reason is that if the rate of change of magnetic flux is greater, then its will induce more emf. It would mean it does not say about emf.

Hence, it is false.

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An electron having 500ev energy enters at right angle to a uniform magnetic field of 10^-4 Tesla. If its specific charge is 1.75
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

The correct answer might be r = 2.8^{27} meters.

Explanation:

<u>The Answer Given might not be correct, I just did what my brain said.</u>

As the angle is perpendicular so Θ=90.

Putting this in the equation to calculate the magnetic force as:

F = evBsinΘ

F= evBsin90                   *sin90 = 1 so,

F= evB.

Now when the electron will start to move in  a circle, The necessary force that makes the electron rotate in a circle is given by Centripetal force.

So,

    Magneteic Force = Centripetal Force

    evB = \frac{mv^{2} }{r}

    r = \frac{mv}{Be} ......(1)

Now the problem is, We don't know " v " so we need to calculate velocity first,

Calculation of Velocity:

                                   In order to calculate the velocity of electron, We should know the potiential difference with which the electrons are accelerated which in our case is 500ev. If "V" is the potiential difference, the energy gained by electrons during accelreation will be Ve. This appear as kinectic enrgy of electrons as,

         

                        K.E = Ve

                        \frac{1}{2}mv^{2} = Ve

                        v =  \sqrt{\frac{2ve}{m} }................(2)

Putting value of velocity in equation 2 from 1:

r = \frac{mv}{Be}  \sqrt{\frac{2ve}{m} }

r = \sqrt{\frac{2mev}{Be}}

r = \sqrt{\frac{(2)(9.1^{-31})(500) (1.6^{-19} )  }{ (1.75^{11} ) (10^{-4} ) } }

r = 2.8^{27} meters.

                               

8 0
3 years ago
Definition of measurements?​
skad [1K]

Answer:

Measurement is a comparison of an unknown quantity with a known fixed quantity of the same kind. The value obtained on measuring a quantity is called its magnitude. The magnitude of a quantity is expressed as numbers in its unit.

8 0
3 years ago
A ball at rest rolls across a frictionless floor at 12.0 m/s/s. How far will it travel in
professor190 [17]

Answer:

The distance, d travelled by the ball is 768 metres.

Explanation:

In physics, acceleration can be defined as the rate of change of the velocity of an object with respect to time.

This simply means that, acceleration is given by the subtraction of final speed from the initial speed all over time.

Hence, if we subtract the final speed from the initial speed and divide that by the time, we can calculate an object’s acceleration.

Mathematically, acceleration is given by the equation;

Acceleration (a) = \frac{initial \; speed  -  final \; speed}{time}

a = \frac{v  -  u}{t}

Where,

a is acceleration measured in ms^{-2}

v and u is initial and final speed respectively, measured in ms^{-1}

t is time measured in seconds.

Given the following data;

Acceleration = 12.0m/s²

Time, t = 8secs

Velocity =?

First, we would calculate its velocity;

a = \frac{v  -  u}{t}

Since the ball rolls at rest, initial velocity is zero (0).

V = a * t

V = 12 * 8

Velocity = 96ms^{-1}

We can now solve for the distance;

Velocity = \frac{distance}{time}

Therefore,

Distance = velocity * time

Distance = 96 * 8

Distance = 768m.

3 0
3 years ago
Please someone derive 3rd equation of motion u- v= 2sa​
zlopas [31]

We know

\\ \sf\longmapsto a=\dfrac{dv}{dt}

\\ \sf\longmapsto a=\dfrac{dv}{dx}.\dfrac{dx}{dt}

\\ \sf\longmapsto a=v\dfrac{dv}{dx}

\\ \sf\longmapsto adx=vdv

  • Integrate

\\ \sf\longmapsto a{\displaystyle{\int}^x_{x_0}}dx=\displaystyle{\int}_u^v vdv

\\ \sf\longmapsto a(x-x_0)=\dfrac{v^2-u^2}{2}

Here

  • x-x_0=s

\\ \sf\longmapsto v^2-u^2=2as

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In the picture below, a doctor is having a video conference with a patient. What might be a positive effect of the technology be
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

Sorry to say but where  is the photo???

The positive effect of technology being used might be using sethescope or checking BP rate if it is good.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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