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4 years ago

Which is NOT a subatomic particle

Physics

1 answer:

Novay_Z [31]4 years ago

6 0

Answer:

both proton and neutron are subatomic particle

Explanation:

hope this helps u stay safe

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Hi can someone pls answer the question number 2 pls i srsly need it. thank u :)

Anvisha [2.4K]

The distance between the image and its leans is 19.04 cm...

Refer to the attachment for detailed solution!!~

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How many significant figures are there in the measurement (4.07×10^17m)

Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

2...................

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3 years ago

What dose fixed supply mean? Tell what a fixed supply curve looks like and heat it’s appearance means

devlian [24]

Answer:

The quantity of some goods or productive factors is totally fixed, whatever their price, for example, there is only one Mona Lisa from Da Vinci.

Explanation:

Nature's original endowment of land can also be considered fixed. A rise in the price offered for land cannot create yet another corner at the junction of 57th Street with Fifth Avenue in New York City. A rise in the pay of famous athletes is unlikely to alter their effort. When the quantity supplied is constant at all prices, what is paid to use such a factor of production is called economic rent or pure economic rent.

When supply is independent of price, the supply curve is vertical in the relevant interval. The land continues to contribute to production regardless of its price. The increase in demand for a fixed factor only affects the price. The quantity supplied does not vary and the rise in price is exactly the same as the upward shift in demand.

When a tax is applied to a fixed good or service, it is paid entirely by (or "transferred" to) the supplier (for example, by the landowner), who absorbs it in its entirety, losing part of its economic income. The consumer buys exactly the same amount as before the good or service without costing mor

5 0

3 years ago

Please answer this question

ElenaW [278]

Answer:

120

Explanation:

30 percent of 400 is 120

8 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Given that the electromagnetic force is far stronger than gravity on a per-particle basis, why doesn't the electromagnetic force

Kaylis [27]

Explanation:

The electro magnetic force is given by

F = $\frac{k.q_{1}.q_{2}}{r^{2}}$

where $q_{1}$ and $q_{2}$ are charged particles

k =Coulombs constant

r = distance between two charges

And gravitational force is given by

F = $\frac{G.m_{1}.m_{2}}{r^{2}}$

where $m_{1}$ and $m_{2}$ are masses

G =Garvitation constant

r = distance between two masses

Now since the planets, stars and galaxies are electrically neutral, therefore they have zero electrical charge and so electro magnetic forces have no affect on these planets, stars and heavenly bodies.

Whereas the masses of the heavenly bodies are very large, so they are largely affected by the gravitational force since Gravitational force is directly proportional to the product of the masses of a body.

Therefore, though the electromagnetic force is stronger than the gravitational force, the electromagnetic force does not dominate the forces in the heavenly bodies as they as not electrically charged.

8 0

4 years ago