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Blababa [14]
3 years ago
7

Does air resistence decrease with speed

Physics
2 answers:
Butoxors [25]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Yes, air resistance decrease with speed

Explanation:

Air resistance is a kind of fluid friction that acts when objects flow through fluids. It is affected by the velocity of moving objects and the area of the objects. When an object moves with a greater velocity the air resistance acting on them will be high, so the speed decreases.

Fluid friction acts in fluids namely liquids and gases. In liquids the friction is called buoyancy and in gases it is called air resistance or drag. When two objects having the same mass but different area move through air, the object with larger area will have less velocity compared with the other object.

dybincka [34]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

because when you slow down, the resistance slows with the speed.

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Suppose a car travels 106 km at a speed of 28 m/s and uses 1.9 gals of gasoline in the process. Only 30% of the gasoline goes in
USPshnik [31]

Answer:

a) The magnitude of the force is 968 N

b) For a constant speed of 30 m/s, the magnitude of the force is 1,037 N

Explanation:

<em>NOTE: The question b) will be changed in other to give a meaningful answer, because it is the same speed as the original (the gallons would be 1.9, as in the original).</em>

Information given:

d = 106 km = 106,000 m

v1 = 28 m/s

G = 1.9 gal

η = 0.3

Eff = 1.2 x 10^8 J/gal

a) We can express the energy used as the work done. This work has the following expression:

W=F\cdot d

Then, we can derive the magnitude of the force as:

F=\frac{W}{d}=\frac{\eta\cdot (G\cdot Eff)}{d}=\frac{0.3*1.9*(1.8*10^8)}{106*10^3} =968\,N

b) We will calculate the force for a speed of 30 m/s.

If the force is proportional to the speed, we have:

F_2=F_1(\frac{v_2}{v_1} )=968(\frac{30}{28} )=968*1.0714=1,037\,N

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3 years ago
This particle would have to have at least how many protons in order to have a positive charge?
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IrinaVladis [17]
Translate to English please
5 0
3 years ago
Q.3. The equivalent resistance across AB is:<br> (a)1<br> (c)2<br> (b)3<br> (d)4
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

1 ohm

Explanation:

First of all, the equivalent resistance for two resistors (r₁ and r₂) in parallel is given by:

1 / Eq = (1 / r₁) + (1 / r₂)

The equivalent resistance for resistance for two resistors (r₁ and r₂) in series is given by:

Eq = r₁ + r₂

Hence as we can see from the circuit diagram, 2Ω // 2Ω, and 2Ω // 2Ω, hence:

1/E₁ = 1/2 + 1/2

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1/E₂ = 1/2 + 1/2

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E₂ = 1Ω

This then leads to E₁ being in series with E₂, hence the equivalent resistance (E₃) of E₁ and E₂ is:

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The equivalent resistance (Eq) across AB is the parallel combination of E₃ and the 2Ω resistor, therefore:

1/Eq = 1/E₃ + 1/2

1/Eq = 1/2 + 1/2

1/Eq = 1

Eq = 1Ω

7 0
3 years ago
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