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Flauer [41]
4 years ago
10

3. When does the iron core in an electromagnet become magnetic?​

Physics
1 answer:
rosijanka [135]4 years ago
3 0

Answer: When electricity flows through it.

Explanation:

The electromagnet exhibits magnetic properties only as soon as current flows through the nucleus. Namely, the electric current in the space around the electrical conductor through which it passes creates a magnetic field. Unlike a permanent magnet, which has a permanent property of magnetism, the electromagnet is a temporary magnet because the magnetic field also disappears when the current ceases.

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An electron traverses a vacuum tube with a length of 2 m in 2 X 10- 4
Maslowich

Answer:

Average speed = 10,000 m/s

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Distance = 2m

Time = 0.0002secs

To find the average speed;

Average speed = distance/time

Average speed = 2/0.0002

Average speed = 10,000 m/s

Therefore, the average speed of the

electron is 10,000 meters per seconds.

7 0
3 years ago
Part 2: Design your own circuit (40 points)
Mrac [35]

Answer:

"YOUR OWN!"

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
In his psychology class, Professor Adams said that fear of spiders and snakes are common in humans, but fear of automobiles is n
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

Evolutionary

Explanation:

Because our ancestors were afraid of these poisonous spiders and snakes which lead to them to telling their kids of these dangers. Their kids will fear them without even encountering any and this will also be passed on to their future generations.

5 0
3 years ago
If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}

Similarly the momentum is given by m\times v

For 2 particles with masses m_{1},m_{2}and moving with velocities v_{1},v_{2} respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}

K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}

Similarly For 2 particles with masses m_{1},m_{2}and moving with velocities v_{1},v_{2} respectively the respective momenta are given by

p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}

p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0
4 years ago
An object is placed at O ona number line. It moves 3 units to the right, then 4 units to the left, and then 6 units to
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

You have a displacement of 5 units to the right.

Explanation:

First you go three to the right which lands on the 3 mark. Then you move it 4 to the left which substracts 4, landing the object at -1. Finally you move 6 to the right, and you finish at marker 5. Since displacement is not total distance but just final distance from the start point directly to end point, it is only a displacement of 5.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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