Answer:
phase difference = π / 2
constructive interference
Explanation:
Given data
wavelength = 420 nm
1st beam = 105 nm
path difference = 105 nm
to find out
phase difference and interference pattern of the two beams
solution
we use here equation of phase difference that is
phase difference = 2π / wavelength × Δx
put here value
phase difference = 2π / 420 × 105
phase difference = π / 2
and
we know that here path difference Δx is the integral multiple of the wavelength so it will be constructive interference
Δx is wavelength / 4
I can't eliminate answers. Some of them are just wrong. A is incorrect. There is no such thing as a 1 pole magnet.
I wouldn't use B. If it is just a bar it is not a magnet.
C is the traditional answer
D is a space filler. It is just there to occupy a letter.
I am almost sure it it (c)
Answer:
Potential
Explanation:
The most accurate term is Electrostatic potential energy
It's named like this because the force between charges or electrons is called electrostatic force .
This is a question on conservation of energy. That is,
mgh + KE1 = KE2
mgh +1/2mv1^2 = 1/2mv2^2
gh + 1/2v1^2 = 1/2v2^2
Where, h = 0.2 m, v1 =3.04 m/s
Therefore,
v2 = Sqrt [2(gh+1/2v1^2)] = Sqrt [2(9.81*0.2 + 1/2*3.04^2)] = 7.26 m/s
Now, Volumetric flow rate, V/time, t = Surface area, A*velocity, v
Where,
V = Av = πD^2/4*3.04 = π*(2.51/100)^2*1/4*3.04 = 1.504*10^-3 m^3/s
At 0.2 m below,
V = 1.504*10^-3 m^3/s = A*7.26
A = (1.504*10^-3)/7.26 = 2.072*10^-4 m^2
But, A = πr^2
Then,
r = Sqrt (A/π) = Sqrt (2.072*10^-4/π) = 0.121*10^-3 m
Diameter = 2r = 0.0162 m = 1.62 cm
