We have that the instantaneous velocity of the
shuttlecock when it hits the ground is
From the question we are told
Assuming the acceleration is still -9.81 m/s2, what is the instantaneous velocity of the
shuttlecock when it hits the ground? Show your work below.
Generally the equation for acceleration is mathematically given as
Where
acceleration is still -9.81 m/s2,
Hence,
Therefore
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Answer:
Option C. 210 J.
Explanation:
From the question given above, the following data were obtained:
Mass (m) = 0.75 Kg
Height (h) = 12 m
Velocity (v) = 18 m/s
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
Total Mechanical energy (ME) =?
Next, we shall determine the potential energy of the plane. This can be obtained as follow:
Mass (m) = 0.75 Kg
Height (h) = 12 m
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
Potential energy (PE) =?
PE = mgh
PE = 0.75 × 9.8 × 12
PE = 88.2 J
Next, we shall determine the kinetic energy of the plane. This can be obtained as follow:
Mass (m) = 0.75 Kg
Velocity (v) = 18 m/s
Kinetic energy (KE) =?
KE = ½mv²
KE = ½ × 0.75 × 18²
KE = ½ × 0.75 × 324
KE = 121.5 J
Finally, we shall determine the total mechanical energy of the plane. This can be obtained as follow:
Potential energy (PE) = 88.2 J
Kinetic energy (KE) = 121.5 J
Total Mechanical energy (ME) =?
ME = PE + KE
ME = 88.2 + 121.5
ME = 209.7 J
ME ≈ 210 J
Therefore, the total mechanical energy of the plane is 210 J.
Answer:
The sea level will be 5m higher in 1667 y (years)
Explanation:
From the question, the rate at which the ocean's level is currently rising is about 3mm per year.
First, we will convert mm (millimeter) to m (meter)
1 mm = 0.001 m
Then,
3 mm = 3 × 0.001 m
= 0.003m
That is, the rate at which the ocean's level is currently rising is about 0.003m per year.
Now, to determine how long it will take for the ocean's level be 5 m higher than now at the given rate,
If the ocean rises 0.003 m in 1 year, then
the ocean will rise 5 m in x years
x = (5 m × 1 year) / 0.003 m
x = 5 / 0.003
x = 1666.67 years
x ≅ 1667 years
Hence, the sea level will be 5m higher in 1667 y (years)
Answer:
18 Ω
Explanation:
As K and F are at the same voltage, we can redraw the diagram as in figure 2
Series resistances add directly, so we get figure 3
Adding parallel resistances gets us to figure 4
Now we can move two 6Ω resistances for clarification in figure 5
As the voltage between C and J will be identically split between D and H, there will be no voltage drop across the middle 6Ω resister and no current through it, identical to an infinite resistance, so that 6Ω can be eliminated as in figure 6
Add series resistances to get to figure 7
Add parallel resistances to get to figure 8
Add series resistances to get to figure 9
