1 and 4 are tire.
2 and 3 are not.
It would be measured in newtons :)
Answer:
I₁ > I₃ > I₂
Explanation:
Taking the pic shown, we have
m₁ = 10m₀
m₂ = 2m₀
m₃ = m₀
r₁ = r₀
r₂ = 2r₀
r₃ = 3r₀
We apply the formula
I = mr²
then
I₁ = m₁r₁² = (10m₀)(r₀)² = 10m₀r₀²
I₂ = m₂r₂² = (2m₀)(2r₀)² = 8m₀r₀²
I₃ = m₃r₃² = (m₀)(3r₀)² = 9m₀r₀²
finally we have
I₁ > I₃ > I₂
Answer:
(b) EAST
Explanation:
you can assume that the magnetic field points rightward, that is, in the positive x direction (NORTH). Furthermore, you can assume that the direction of the motion of the electron is in the positive y direction. Hence, you have:

You use the Lorentz formula to known which is the direction of the magnetic force over the electron:

which implies the cross product between the unitary vecors j and i, that is
(WEST)
However, the minus sign of the charge of the electron changes the direction 180°. Hence, the direction is k. That is, to the EAST