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KengaRu [80]
4 years ago
11

If a vacuum gau ge reads 9.62 psi, it means that: a. the very highest column of mercury it could support would be 19.58 inches.

b. the absolute pressure is exactly 5.08 psia. c. the pressure is 9.62 below atmospheric pressure -, d, none of the above e. all of the above
Engineering
1 answer:
scZoUnD [109]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:All of the above

Explanation:

9.62 psi means 497.49 mm of Hg pressure

for (a)19.58 inches is equals to 497.49 mm of Hg

(b)atmospheric pressure is 14.69 psi

vaccum gauge is 9.62psi

absolute pressure is=14.69-9.62=5.07

(c)vaccum means air is sucked and there is negative pressure so it tells about below atmospheric pressure.

thus all are correct

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The Eads Bridge, which crosses the Mississippi River near St Louis, Missouri, was one of the first all steel bridges built in th
MrMuchimi

Answer: At 520 feet between the piers, the center arch of Eads Bridge was the longest rigid span ever built at the time of its construction (only a few suspension bridges had longer spans).

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
The steel 4140 steel contains 0.4% C, however, it shows higher yield strength and ultimate strength than that of the 1045 (0.45%
Aleonysh [2.5K]

Answer:

4140 steel contains 0.4% C  having higher yield strength and ultimate strength than the 1045 steel contains 0.45% C

Explanation:

we have given 4140 steel contains 0.4% C

we know here that 4140 steel is low steel alloy , and it have low amount of chromium , manganese etc alloying element

and these elements which are present in 4140 steel they increase yield strength and ultimate strength of steel

while in 1045 steel contains 0.45 % c is plain carbon steel

and it do not contain any alloying element

so that 4140 steel contains 0.4% C  having higher yield strength and ultimate strength than the 1045 steel contains 0.45% C

4 0
3 years ago
Multiply. Write the answer in simplest form. 1 3/10×1/8
kicyunya [14]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  13/80

Explanation:

The product is ...

  (1 3/10)×(1/8) = (13/10)×(1/8) = (13×1)/(10×8) = 13/80

4 0
2 years ago
The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: 푖푖=40푚푚푚푚푡푡≤0푖푖=푚푚1푒푒−10,000푡푡+푚푚2푒푒−40,000푡푡푚푚푡푡≥0The voltage across the induct
Anni [7]

Answer:

a) The expression for electrical current: i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

The expression for voltage: v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) For t<=0 the inductor is storing energy and for t > 0 the inductor is delivering energy.

Explanation:

The question text is corrupted. I found the complete question on the web and it goes as follow:

The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: i = 40 mA at t<=0 and i = A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t) A at t>0. The voltage across the inductor (passive sign convention) is -68 V at t = 0.

a. Find the numerical expressions for i and v for t>0.

b. Specify the time intervals when the inductor is storing energy and is delivering energy.

A inductor stores energy in the form of a magnetic field, it behaves in a way that oposes sudden changes in the electric current that flows through it, therefore at moment just after t = 0, that for convenience we'll call t = 0+, the current should be the same as t=0, so:

i = A1*e^(-10,000*(0)) + A2*e^(-40,000*(0))

40*10^(-3) = A1*e^(-10,000*0) + A2*e^(-40,000*0)

40*10^(-3) = (A1)*1 + (A2)*1

40*10^(-3) = A1 + A2

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

Since we have two variables (A1 and A2) we need another equation to be able to solve for both. For that reason we will use the voltage expression for a inductor, that is:

V = L*di/dt

We have the voltage drop across the inductor at t=0 and we know that the current at t=0 and the following moments after that should be equal, so we can use the current equation for t > 0 to find the derivative on that point, so:

di/dt = d(A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t))/dt

di/dt = [d(-10,000*t)/dt]*A1*e^(-10,000*t) + [d(-40,000*t)/dt]*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

di/dt = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

By applying t = 0 to this expression we have:

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*0) - 40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*0)

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^0 - 40,000*A2*e^0

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1- 40,000*A2

We can now use the voltage equation for the inductor at t=0, that is:

v = L di/dt (at t=0)

68 = [20*10^(-3)]*(-10,000*A1 - 40,000*A2)

68 = -400*A1 -800*A2

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

We now have a system with two equations and two variable, therefore we can solve it for both:

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

Using the first equation we have:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - A2

We can apply this to the second equation to solve for A2:

-400*[40*10^(-3) - A2] - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 + 400*A2 - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 -400*A2 = 68

-400*A2 = 68 + 1.6

A2 = 69.6/400 = 0.174

We use this value of A2 to calculate A1:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - 0.174 = -0.134

Applying these values on the expression we have the equations for both the current and tension on the inductor:

i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[-10,000*(-0.134)*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*(0.174)*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[1340*e^(-10,000*t) - 6960*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) The question states that the current for the inductor at t > 0 is a exponential powered by negative numbers it is expected that its current will reach 0 at t = infinity. So, from t =0 to t = infinity the inductor is delivering energy. Since at time t = 0 the inductor already has a current flow of 40 mA and a voltage, we can assume it already had energy stored, therefore for t<0 it is storing energy.

8 0
4 years ago
Given a force of 72 lbs at a distance of 15 ft, calculate the moment produced.​
Elis [28]

Answer:

1425.78 N.m

Explanation:

Moments of force is calculated as ;

Moments= Force * distance

M= F*d

The S.I unit for moment of force is Newton-meter (N.m)

Given in the question;

Force = 72 lbs

1 pound = 4.45 N

72 lbs = 4.45 * 72=320.4 N

Distance= 15 ft

1ft= 0.3048 m

15 ft = 15*0.3048 = 4.57 m

d= 4.57 m

M= F*d

M=320.4*4.57 =1425.78 N.m

5 0
4 years ago
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