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viva [34]
2 years ago
12

How many days for the moon to make a complete circuit around the Earth?​

Physics
2 answers:
Andru [333]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

It takes the Moon 27.3 days to complete a single orbit around Earth.

Explanation:

blagie [28]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

27.3

Explanation:

but average around 29.53 days

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After watching a show about submarines, Jamil wants to learn more about the oceans. Which question could be answered through sci
Georgia [21]
The best question that could prompt a scientific investigation is: <u>What substances dissolve in ocean water?</u> 

This way the person experimenting can use several variables and make observations. Upon making observations, the person can be able to gather as much data as he can in order to answer the original question that he asked.
7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
19) A child on a sled starts from rest at the top of a 15.0° slope. If the trip to the bottom takes 15.2 s,
sveticcg [70]

Answer: 288.8 m

Explanation:

We have the following data:

t=15.2 s is the time it takes to the child to reach the bottom of the slope

V_{o}=0 is the initial velocity (the child started from rest)

\theta=15\° is the angle of the slope

d is the length of the slope

Now, the Force exerted on the sled along the ramp is:

F=ma (1)

Where m is the mass of the sled and a its acceleration

In addition, if we draw a free body diagram of this sled, the force along the ramp will be:

F=mg sin \theta (2)

Where g=9.8 m/s^{2} is the acceleration due gravity

Then:

ma=mg sin \theta (3)

Finding a:

a=g sin \theta (4)

a=9.8 m/s^{2} sin(15\°) (5)

a=2.5 m/s^{2} (6)

Now, we will use the following kinematic equations to find d:

V=V_{o}+at (7)

V^{2}=V_{o}^{2}+2ad (8)

Where V is the final velocity

Finding V from (7):

V=at=(2.5 m/s^{2})(15.2 s) (9)

V=38 m/s (10)

Substituting (10) in (8):

(38 m/s)^{2}=2(2.5 m/s^{2})d (11)

Finding d:

d=288.8 m

6 0
3 years ago
According to Kepler's Second Law the radius vector drawn from the Sun to a planet Multiple Choice is the same for all planets. s
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

sweeps out equal areas in equal times.

Explanation:

As we know that there is no torque due to Sun on the planets revolving about the sun

so we will have

\tau_{net} = 0

now we have

\frac{dL}{dt}= 0

now we also know that

Area = \frac{1}{2}r^2d\theta

so rate of change in area is given as

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{1}{2}r^2\frac{d\theta}{dt}

so we will have

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{1}{2}r^2\omega

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{L}{2m}

since angular momentum and mass is constant here so

all planets sweeps out equal areas in equal times.

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a star that has begun to run out of fuel? A) Neutron star B) Red giant C) Stellar nebula D) White dwar
Readme [11.4K]
The answer is B.Red Giant

Red Giants are stars which already in a late stage of evolution. These stars no longer have enough hydrogen to fuel it's nuclear fusion

hope this helps

7 0
2 years ago
Sort the forces as producing a torque of positive, negative, or zero magnitude about the rotational axis identified in part
Fantom [35]

a) Angular acceleration: 17.0 rad/s^2

b) Weight: conterclockwise torque, reaction force: zero torque

Explanation:

a)

In this problem, you are holding the pencil at its end: this means that the pencil will rotate about this point.

The only force producing a torque on the pencil is the weight of the pencil, of magnitude

W=mg

where m is the mass of the pencil and g the acceleration of gravity.

However, when the pencil is rotating around its end, only the component of the weight tangential to its circular trajectory will cause an angular acceleration. This component of the weight is:

W_p =mg sin \theta

where \theta is the angle of the rod with respect to the vertical.

The weight act at the center of mass of the pencil, which is located at the middle of the pencil. So the torque produced is

\tau = W_p \frac{L}{2}=mg\frac{L}{2} cos \theta

where L is the length of the pencil.

The relationship between torque and angular acceleration \alpha is

\tau = I \alpha (1)

where

I=\frac{1}{3}mL^2

is the moment of inertia of the pencil with respect to its end.

Substituting into (1) and solving for \alpha, we find:

\alpha = \frac{\tau}{I}=\frac{mg\frac{L}{2}sin \theta}{\frac{1}{3}mL^2}=\frac{3 g sin \theta}{2L}

And assuming that the length of the pencil is L = 15 cm = 0.15 m, the angular acceleration when \theta=10^{\circ} is

\alpha = \frac{3(9.8)(sin 10^{\circ})}{2(0.15)}=17.0 rad/s^2

b)

There are only two forces acting on the pencil here:

- The weight of the pencil, of magnitude mg

- The normal reaction of the hand on the pencil, R

The torque exerted by each force is given by

\tau = Fd

where F is the magnitude of the force and d the distance between the force and the pivot point.

For the weight, we saw in part a) that the torque is

\tau =mg\frac{L}{2} cos \theta

For the reaction force, the torque is zero: this is because the reaction force is applied exctly at the pivot point, so d = 0, and therefore the torque is zero.

Therefore:

- Weight: counterclockwise torque (I have assumed that the pencil is held at its right end)

- Reaction force: zero torque

8 0
3 years ago
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