Answer:
A: The acceleration is 7.7 m/s up the inclined plane.
B: It will take the block 0.36 seconds to move 0.5 meters up along the inclined plane
Explanation:
Let us work with variables and set
![m=5kg\\\\F_H=100N\\\\\mu=0.3\\\\\theta=37^o.](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=m%3D5kg%5C%5C%5C%5CF_H%3D100N%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cmu%3D0.3%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctheta%3D37%5Eo.)
As shown in the attached free body diagram, we choose our coordinates such that the x-axis is parallel to the inclined plane and the y-axis is perpendicular. We do this because it greatly simplifies our calculations.
Part A:
From the free body diagram we see that the total force along the x-axis is:
![F_{tot}=mg*sin(\theta)+F_s-F_Hcos(\theta).](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_%7Btot%7D%3Dmg%2Asin%28%5Ctheta%29%2BF_s-F_Hcos%28%5Ctheta%29.)
Now the force of friction is
where
is the normal force and from the diagram it is ![F_y=mg*cos(\theta).](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_y%3Dmg%2Acos%28%5Ctheta%29.)
Thus
Therefore,
![F_{tot}=mg*sin(\theta)+\mu*mg*cos(\theta)-F_Hcos(\theta)\\\\=mg(sin(\theta)+\mu*cos(\theta))-F_Hcos(\theta).](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_%7Btot%7D%3Dmg%2Asin%28%5Ctheta%29%2B%5Cmu%2Amg%2Acos%28%5Ctheta%29-F_Hcos%28%5Ctheta%29%5C%5C%5C%5C%3Dmg%28sin%28%5Ctheta%29%2B%5Cmu%2Acos%28%5Ctheta%29%29-F_Hcos%28%5Ctheta%29.)
Substituting the value for
we get:
![F_{tot}= -38.63N.](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=F_%7Btot%7D%3D%20-38.63N.)
Now acceleration is simply
![a=\frac{F_H}{m} =\frac{-38.63N}{5kg} =-7.7m/s.](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=a%3D%5Cfrac%7BF_H%7D%7Bm%7D%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B-38.63N%7D%7B5kg%7D%20%3D-7.7m%2Fs.)
The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is directed up the incline.
Part B:
![d=\frac{1}{2} at^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=d%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20at%5E2)
Which can be rearranged to solve for t:
![t=\sqrt{\frac{2d}{a} }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=t%3D%5Csqrt%7B%5Cfrac%7B2d%7D%7Ba%7D%20%7D)
Substitute the value of
and
and we get:
which is our answer.
Notice that in using the formula to calculate time we used the positive value of
, because for this formula absolute value is needed.
Answer:
The magnitude of the voltage is
and the direction of the current is clockwise.
Explanation:
Given that,
Number of turns = 9
Magnetic field = 0.5 T
Diameter = 3 cm
Time t = 0.14 s
We need to calculate the flux
Using formula of flux
![\phi=NAB](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cphi%3DNAB)
Put the value into the formula
![\phi=9\times\pi\times(1.5\times10^{-2})^2\times0.5](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cphi%3D9%5Ctimes%5Cpi%5Ctimes%281.5%5Ctimes10%5E%7B-2%7D%29%5E2%5Ctimes0.5)
![\phi=0.003180](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cphi%3D0.003180)
We need to calculate the emf
Using formula of emf
![\epsilon=-\dfrac{d\phi}{dt}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cepsilon%3D-%5Cdfrac%7Bd%5Cphi%7D%7Bdt%7D)
![\epsilon=-\dfrac{0.003180}{0.14}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cepsilon%3D-%5Cdfrac%7B0.003180%7D%7B0.14%7D)
![\epsilon =-0.000227\ V](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cepsilon%20%3D-0.000227%5C%20V)
![\epsilon=-2.27\times10^{-4}\ V](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cepsilon%3D-2.27%5Ctimes10%5E%7B-4%7D%5C%20V)
Negative sign shows the direction of current.
Hence, The magnitude of the voltage is
and the direction of the current is clockwise.
The atomic number gives you the number of protons element x has. Since the mass of protons and neutrons are almost similar(around 1 amu), the mass number can be thought of as the sum of protons and neutrons. so if element x whose atomic number is 40 has a mass number of 82, then we know that 42 of those must be neutrons.