Answer:
The moment of inertia is 
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The frequency is 
The mass of the pendulum is 
The location of the pivot from the center is 
Generally the period of the simple harmonic motion is mathematically represented as

Where I is the moment of inertia about the pivot point , so making I the subject of the formula it
=> ![I = [ \frac{T}{2 \pi } ]^2 * m* g * d](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=I%20%3D%20%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7BT%7D%7B2%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5D%5E2%20%2A%20%20m%2A%20%20g%20%2A%20d)
But the period of this simple harmonic motion can also be represented mathematically as

substituting values


So
![I = [ \frac{2.174}{2 * 3.142 } ]^2 * 2.40* 9.8 * 0.380](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=I%20%3D%20%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7B2.174%7D%7B2%20%2A%203.142%20%7D%20%5D%5E2%20%2A%20%20%202.40%2A%20%209.8%20%2A%200.380)

Ok i apologise for the messy working but I'll try and explain my attempt at logic
Also note i ignore any air resistance for this.
First i wrote the two equations I'd most likely need for this situation, the kinetic energy equation and the potential energy equation.
Because the energy right at the top of the swing motion is equal to the energy right in the "bottom" of the swing's motion (due to conservation of energy), i made the kinetic energy equal to the potential energy as indicated by Ek = Ep.
I also noted the "initial" and "final" height of the swing with hi and hf respectively.
So initially looking at this i thought, what the heck, there's no mass. Then i figured that using the conservation of energy law i could take the mass value from the Ek equation and use it in the Ep equation. So what i did was take the Ek equation and rearranged it for m as you can hopefully see. Then i substituted the rearranged Ek equation into the Ep equation.
So then the equation reads something like Ep = (rearranged Ek equation for m) × g (which is -9.81) × change in height (hf - hi).
Then i simplify the equation a little. When i multiply both sides by v^2 i can clearly see that there is one E on each side (at that stage i don't need to clarify which type of energy it is because Ek = Ep so they're just the same anyway). So i just canceled them out and square rooted both sides.
The answer i got was that the max velocity would be 4.85m/s 3sf, assuming no losses (eg energy lost to friction).
I do hope I'm right and i suppose it's better than a blank piece of paper good luck my dude xx
The question is incomplete.
The distance between the Moon and Earth influences: 1) the attractive gravitational force between them, 2) the tides, 3) the eclipses, 4) the period of each full turn of the moon around the Earth.
Assuming the question refers to the gravitational attraction, we must use the fact that, as per, Newton's Universal Gravitaional Law, the attractive force between the two bodies is inversely related to the square distance that separates them.
Then, if the Moon were twice as far, the gravitational pull would be one fourth (1/4) of actual pull.
Answer:
3.67 km
Explanation:
Joe distance towards coffee shop is,

And the Max distance towards bookstore is,

Now the distance between the Joy and Max will be,
By applying pythagorus theorem,

Substitute 0.40 km for OB and 3.65 km for OA in the above equation.

Therefore the distance between there destination is 3.67 km.
Answer:
x-component of force is 38.18 lb where as magnitude of Force is 93.16
Explanation:
Fy of the force F exerted on the handle of the box wrench = 86 lb
Considering the triangle in Fig 1
magnitude of perpendicular = P = 12
magnitude of base = B = 5
using Pythagoras theorem



y-component of force is given given as:
