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3 years ago

How do I convert 14.8 cm into MEters?

Physics

2 answers:

stellarik [79]3 years ago

6 0

Multiply it by a fraction equal to ' 1 ', like this:

(14.8 cm) x (1 meter/100 cm) = 14.8/100 = 0.148 meter

irinina [24]3 years ago

5 0

$1 cm = 0.01 m = 1 \cdot 10^{-2} m$
We can write it in this form:
$14 cm = 0.14 m = 14 \cdot 10^{-2} m$

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The frequency of the musical note F#3 is 1.85x102 hertz. What is its period?

g100num [7]

The period of the musical note is $\text { 5. } 4 \times 10^{-3}$ seconds.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The frequency is defined as the number of oscillations or a complete cycle of wave occurred in a given time interval. So the frequency is inversely proportional to the time period. Thus the mathematical representation of frequency with time period is

$\text {Frequency}=\frac{1}{\text {Time period }}$

As the frequency is given as $1.85 \times 10^{2} \mathrm{Hz}$ , the time period can be found as

$\text { Time period }=\frac{1}{\text { Frequency }}$

Thus,

$\text { Time period }=\frac{1}{1.85 \times 10^{2}}=5.4 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{s}$

Thus the time period for the frequency of the musical note is $\text { 5. } 4 \times 10^{-3}$ seconds.

5 0

3 years ago

Let's say you have two tuning forks which are supposed to produce the same frequency, 512 Hz. One is of good quality, but the ot

solong [7]

Answer:

= 2 beats per seconds

Explanation:

From |f -f'| = modulus of the difference between the frequency given.

f = 510Hz and f' = 512Hz

Difference between the frequency will give us the number of beat per seconds.

i.e 2 beats per seconds

These also shows how to get the period of the tuning forks.

7 0

3 years ago

Machines

Ainat [17]

Explanation:

Hey there!!

Here, Given is,

Efficiency = 75%

VR = no. of pulleys = 5

Now,

$effeciency = (\frac{ma}{vr} ) \times 100\%$

$75\% = \frac{ma}{5} \times 100\%$

100% ma = 75%×5

$ma = \frac{75\% \times5}{100\%}$

$ma = \frac{375\%}{100\%}$

Therefore, MA is 3.75.

Hope it helps...

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How do you find the velocity after a collision

Evgen [1.6K]

Answer:

In a collision, the velocity change is always computed by subtracting the initial velocity value from the final velocity value. If an object is moving in one direction before a collision and rebounds or somehow changes direction, then its velocity after the collision has the opposite direction as before.

Explanation:

7 0

4 years ago

Plz help >:

svlad2 [7]

Answer:

10m

Explanation:

The object distance and image distance is the same from the mirror. so the image is 5m behind the mirror.

5+5=10

5 0

3 years ago