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postnew [5]
3 years ago
8

A sharp edged orifice with a 60 mm diameter opening in the vertical side of a large tank discharges under a head of 6 m. If the

coefficient of contraction is 0.68 and the coefficient of velocity is 0.92, what is the discharge?
Physics
1 answer:
Ierofanga [76]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The discharge rate is Q = 0.0192 \  m^3 /s

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  diameter is  d =  60 \ mm   =  0.06 \ m

    The  head is  h  =  6 \ m

     The  coefficient of contraction is  Cc  =  0.68

     The  coefficient of  velocity is  Cv  =  0.92

The radius is mathematically evaluated as

         r =  \frac{d}{2}

substituting values

        r =  \frac{ 0.06 }{2}

        r =  0.03 \ m

The  area is mathematically represented as

      A =  \pi r^2

substituting values

      A =  3.142 *  (0.03)^2

      A = 0.00283 \ m^2

 The  discharge rate is mathematically represented as

        Q =  Cv *Cc  *  A  *  \sqrt{ 2 * g *  h}

substituting values

       Q = 0.68 *  0.92*   0.00283  *  \sqrt{ 2 * 9.8 *  6}

       Q = 0.0192 \  m^3 /s

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Answer:

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So, Iα = WL

mL²α/3 = mgL

dividing through by mL, we have

Lα/3 = g

multiplying both sides by 3, we have

Lα = 3g

dividing both sides by L, we have

α = 3g/L

Substituting the values of the variables, we have

α = 3g/L

= 3 × 9.8 m/s²/0.9 m

= 29.4/0.9 rad/s²

= 32.67 rad/s²

b. The initial linear acceleration of the right end of the rod?

The linear acceleration at the initial point is tangential, so a = Lα = 0.9 m × 32.67 rad/s² = 29.4 m/s²

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My Notes Ask Your Teacher 6. Six blocks with different masses, m, each start from rest at the top of smooth, frictionless inclin
Tresset [83]

Answer:

Kf > Ka = Kb > Kc > Kd > Ke

Explanation:

We can apply

E₀ = E₁

where

E₀: Mechanical energy at the beginning of the motion (top of the incline)

E₁: Mechanical energy at the end (bottom of the incline)

then

K₀ + U₀ = K₁ + U₁

If v₀ = 0  ⇒  K₀

and  h₁ = 0   ⇒    U₁ = 0

we get

U₀ = K₁    

U₀ = m*g*h₀ = K₁

we apply the same equation in each case

a) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 70 Kg*9.81 m/s²*8m = 5493.60 J

b) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 70 Kg*9.81 m/s²*8m = 5493.60 J

c) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 35 Kg*9.81 m/s²*4m = 1373.40 J

d) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 7 Kg*9.81 m/s²*16m = 1098.72 J

e) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 7 Kg*9.81 m/s²*4m = 274.68 J

f) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 105 Kg*9.81 m/s²*6m = 6180.30 J

finally, we can say that

Kf > Ka = Kb > Kc > Kd > Ke

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