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Ivahew [28]
3 years ago
5

You are hitting a nail with a hammer (mass of hammer =1.8lb) the initial velocity of the hammer is 50 mph (73.33 ft/sec). The ti

me of impact is .023 sec. Assuming the nail heads directly in the -j direction, what is the magnitude of the force exerted on the hammer from the nail?
Engineering
1 answer:
Archy [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The nail exerts a force of 573.88 Pounds on the Hammer in positive j direction.

Explanation:

Since we know that the force is the rate at which the momentum of an object changes.

Mathematically \overrightarrow{F}=\frac{\Delta \overrightarrow{p}}{\Delta t}

The momentum of any body is defines as \overrightarrow{p}=mass\times \overrightarrow{v}

In the above problem we see that the moumentum of the hammer is reduced to zero in 0.023 seconds thus the force on the hammer is calculated using the above relations as

\overrightarrow{F}=\frac{m(\overrightarrow{v_{f}}-\overrightarrow{v_{i}})}{\Delta t}

\overrightarrow{F}=\frac{m(0-(-73.33)}{0.23}=\frac{1.8\times 73.33}{0.23}=573.88Pounds

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There have been many attempts to manufacture and market plastic bicycles. All have been too flexible and soft. Which design-limi
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

The design-limiting property that insufficiently large is the elastic modulus (Young modulus)

Explanation:

Plastic usually have a relatively low elastic modulus, this couses the material to deform too much under stress. In the case of a bicycle, a little weight you put on it or little bumps will cause the bicycle to deform too much.

5 0
3 years ago
Steam at 4 MPa and 350°C is expanded in an adiabatic turbine to 125kPa. What is the isentropic efficiency (percent) of this turb
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

\eta_{turbine} = 0.603 = 60.3\%

Explanation:

First, we will find actual properties at given inlet and outlet states by the use of steam tables:

AT INLET:

At 4MPa and 350°C, from the superheated table:

h₁ = 3093.3 KJ/kg

s₁ = 6.5843 KJ/kg.K

AT OUTLET:

At P₂ = 125 KPa and steam is saturated in  vapor state:

h₂ = h_{g\ at\ 125KPa} = 2684.9 KJ/kg

Now, for the isentropic enthalpy, we have:

P₂ = 125 KPa and s₂ = s₁ = 6.5843 KJ/kg.K

Since s₂ is less than s_g and greater than s_f at 125 KPa. Therefore, the steam is in a saturated mixture state. So:

x = \frac{s_2-s_f}{s_{fg}} \\\\x = \frac{6.5843\ KJ/kg.K - 1.3741\ KJ/kg.K}{5.91\ KJ/kg.K}\\\\x = 0.88

Now, we will find h_{2s}(enthalpy at the outlet for the isentropic process):

h_{2s} = h_{f\ at\ 125KPa}+xh_{fg\ at\ 125KPa}\\\\h_{2s} = 444.36\ KJ/kg + (0.88)(2240.6\ KJ/kg)\\h_{2s} = 2416.088\ KJ/kg

Now, the isentropic efficiency of the turbine can be given as follows:

\eta_{turbine} = \frac{h_1-h_2}{h_1-h_{2s}}\\\\\eta_{turbine} = \frac{3093.3\ KJ/kg-2684.9\ KJ/kg}{3093.3\ KJ/kg-2416.088\ KJ/kg}\\\\\eta_{turbine} = \frac{408.4\ KJ/kg}{677.212\ KJ/kg}\\\\\eta_{turbine} = 0.603 = 60.3\%

3 0
3 years ago
Consider fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe. If the viscosity of the fluid is reduced by half by heating while the
gladu [14]

Answer:

The pressure drop across the pipe also reduces by half of its initial value if the viscosity of the fluid reduces by half of its original value.

Explanation:

For a fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe, the flowrate (volumetric) is given by the Hagen-Poiseulle's equation.

Q = π(ΔPR⁴/8μL)

where Q = volumetric flowrate

ΔP = Pressure drop across the pipe

μ = fluid viscosity

L = pipe length

If all the other parameters are kept constant, the pressure drop across the circular pipe is directly proportional to the viscosity of the fluid flowing in the pipe

ΔP = μ(8QL/πR⁴)

ΔP = Kμ

K = (8QL/πR⁴) = constant (for this question)

ΔP = Kμ

K = (ΔP/μ)

So, if the viscosity is halved, the new viscosity (μ₁) will be half of the original viscosity (μ).

μ₁ = (μ/2)

The new pressure drop (ΔP₁) is then

ΔP₁ = Kμ₁ = K(μ/2)

Recall,

K = (ΔP/μ)

ΔP₁ = K(μ/2) = (ΔP/μ) × (μ/2) = (ΔP/2)

Hence, the pressure drop across the pipe also reduces by half of its initial value if the viscosity of the fluid reduces by half of its value.

Hope this Helps!!!

4 0
2 years ago
If the bending moment (M) is 4,176 ft-lb and the beam is an 1 beam, calculate the bending stress (psi) developed at a point with
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

Bending stress at point 3.96 is \sigma_b = 1.37 psi

Explanation:

Given data:

Bending Moment M is 4.176 ft-lb = 50.12 in- lb

moment of inertia I = 144 inc^4

y = 3.96 in

\sigma_b = \frac{M}{I} \times y

putting all value to get bending stress

\sigma_b = \frac{50.112}{144} \times 3.96  

\sigma_b =  1.37 psi

Bending stress at point 3.96 is \sigma_b = 1.37 psi

3 0
3 years ago
For a turning operation, you have selected a high-speed steel (HSS) tool and turning a hot rolled free machining steel. Your dep
Alisiya [41]

Answer:

MRR = 1.984

Explanation:

Given that                              

Depth of cut ,d=0.105 in

Diameter D= 1 in

Speed V= 105 sfpm

feed f= 0.015 ipr

Now  the metal   removal  rate   given as

MRR= 12 f V d

d= depth of cut

V= Speed

f=Feed

MRR= Metal removal rate

By putting the values

MRR= 12 f V d

MRR = 12 x 0.015 x 105 x 0.105

MRR = 1.984

Therefore answer is -

1.944

8 0
2 years ago
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