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2 years ago

According to Faraday's law, voltage cannot be changed by changing the magnetic field strength.

1 answer:

5 0

The statement ‘According to Faraday's law, voltage cannot be changed by changing the magnetic field strength’ is false. No matter how the change is created, voltage will always be produced and it could be the magnetic field strength, moving magnet toward or away from the coil etc. This is because the voltage is directly proportional to the number of turns and the magnetic flux.

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The distance between two corresponding parts of a wave is its

oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

wavelenght

Explanation:

The wavelength is the spatial period of a wave, analogous to the temporal period, it is the distance between two consecutive points with maximum amplitude that are repeated in space . In the waves of the sea, the wavelength is easily observed in the separation between two consecutive ridges.

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How far will a car travel in 4 hours at 40 mph? Use one of the following to find the answer.

Aleks [24]

Answer:

1600 miles

Explanation:

4x400=1600

5 0

1 year ago

3.How can you find the velocity of the object just before impact without directly measuring it?

e-lub [12.9K]

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7 0

2 years ago

Drawing a shows a displacement vector (450.0 m along the y axis). In this x, y coordinate system the scalar components are Ax 0

Alisiya [41]

Answer:

x ’= 368.61 m, y ’= 258.11 m

Explanation:

To solve this problem we must find the projections of the point on the new vectors of the rotated system θ = 35º

x’= R cos 35

y’= R sin 35

The modulus vector can be found using the Pythagorean theorem

R² = x² + y²

R = 450 m

we calculate

x ’= 450 cos 35

x ’= 368.61 m

y ’= 450 sin 35

y ’= 258.11 m

4 0

2 years ago

The instantaneous speed of a particle moving along one straight line is v(t) = ate−6t, where the speed v is measured in meters p

beks73 [17]

Answer:

v_max = (1/6)e^-1 a

Explanation:

You have the following equation for the instantaneous speed of a particle:

$v(t)=ate^{-6t}$ (1)

To find the expression for the maximum speed in terms of the acceleration "a", you first derivative v(t) respect to time t:

$\frac{dv(t)}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}[ate^{-6t}]=a[(1)e^{-6t}+t(e^{-6t}(-6))]$ (2)

where you have use the derivative of a product.

Next, you equal the expression (2) to zero in order to calculate t:

$a[(1)e^{-6t}-6te^{-6t}]=0\\\\1-6t=0\\\\t=\frac{1}{6}$

For t = 1/6 you obtain the maximum speed.

Then, you replace that value of t in the expression (1):

$v_{max}=a(\frac{1}{6})e^{-6(\frac{1}{6})}=\frac{e^{-1}}{6}a$

hence, the maximum speed is v_max = ((1/6)e^-1)a

5 0

2 years ago