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3 years ago

How to do the equation p1v1 = p2v2 as an equation layed out like:

1 answer:

4 0

P1 and P2 are the pressures, and V1 and V2 are the volumes. So you take the first pressure and volume you are given and place them into the equation P1V1 so the first part of the equation would be 101000*0.5 = P2V2. You then rearrange the equation to find what you want, in this instance you would do 50500/0.25 = P2... therefore P2 = 2020000Pa or 2.02*10^6Pa

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Which of the following is a chemical change

alina1380 [7]

What are the options u can't say that and expect me to know wat u talkin bout

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A uniform marble rolls down a symmetrical bowl, start- ing from rest at the top of the left side. The top of each side is a dist

Paha777 [63]

Answer:

Part a)

$h' = \frac{10}{14} h$

Part b)

if both sides are rough then it will reach the same height on the other side because the energy is being conserved.

Part c)

Since marble will go to same height when it is rough while when it is smooth then it will go to the height

$h' = \frac{10}{14} h$

so on smooth it will go to lower height

Explanation:

As we know by energy conservation the total energy at the bottom of the bowl is given as

$\frac{1}{2} mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega^2 = mgh$

here we know that on the left side the ball is rolling due to which it is having rotational and transnational both kinetic energy

now on the right side of the bowl there is no friction

so its rotational kinetic energy will not change and remains the same

so it will have

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgh'$

now we know that

$I = \frac{2}{5}mr^2$

$\omega = \frac{v}{r}$

so we have

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}(\frac{2}{5}mr^2)(\frac{v}{r})^2 = mgh$

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{5}mv^2 = mgh$

$\frac{7}{10}mv^2 = mgh$

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{10}{14}mgh$

so the height on the smooth side is given as

$h' = \frac{10}{14} h$

Part b)

if both sides are rough then it will reach the same height on the other side because the energy is being conserved.

Part c)

Since marble will go to same height when it is rough while when it is smooth then it will go to the height

$h' = \frac{10}{14} h$

so on smooth it will go to lower height

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Individuals with favorable traits are ________ in an environment

77julia77 [94]

Succesful is correct.

6 0

3 years ago

The majority of the sun's energy that reaches Earth is __________. View Available Hint(s) The majority of the sun's energy that

Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

not captured for use by living things

Explanation:

The sun is a star with a high radiation and most of(around 55-67%) the radiation that reaches the earth is usually reflected back. The earth cannot use all the energy that reaches the earth. It uses almost around 15-30%

3 0

3 years ago

g initial angular velocity of 39.1 rad/s. It starts to slow down uniformly and comes to rest, making 76.8 revolutions during the

MrRa [10]

Answer:

Approximately $-1.58\; \rm rad \cdot s^{-2}$ .

Explanation:

This question suggests that the rotation of this object slows down "uniformly". Therefore, the angular acceleration of this object should be constant and smaller than zero.

This question does not provide any information about the time required for the rotation of this object to come to a stop. In linear motions with a constant acceleration, there's an SUVAT equation that does not involve time:

$v^2 - u^2 = 2\, a\, x$ ,

where

$v$ is the final velocity of the moving object,
$u$ is the initial velocity of the moving object,
$a$ is the (linear) acceleration of the moving object, and
$x$ is the (linear) displacement of the object while its velocity changed from $u$ to $v$ .

The angular analogue of that equation will be:

$(\omega(\text{final}))^2 - (\omega(\text{initial}))^2 = 2\, \alpha\, \theta$ , where

$\omega(\text{final})$ and $\omega(\text{initial})$ are the initial and final angular velocity of the rotating object,
$\alpha$ is the angular acceleration of the moving object, and
$\theta$ is the angular displacement of the object while its angular velocity changed from $\omega(\text{initial})$ to $\omega(\text{final})$ .

For this object:

$\omega(\text{final}) = 0\; \rm rad\cdot s^{-1}$ , whereas
$\omega(\text{initial}) = 39.1\; \rm rad\cdot s^{-1}$ .

The question is asking for an angular acceleration with the unit $\rm rad \cdot s^{-1}$ . However, the angular displacement from the question is described with the number of revolutions. Convert that to radians:

$\begin{aligned}\theta &= 76.8\; \rm \text{revolution} \\ &= 76.8\;\text{revolution} \times 2\pi\; \rm rad \cdot \text{revolution}^{-1} \\ &= 153.6\pi\; \rm rad\end{aligned}$ .

Rearrange the equation $(\omega(\text{final}))^2 - (\omega(\text{initial}))^2 = 2\, \alpha\, \theta$ and solve for $\alpha$ :

$\begin{aligned}\alpha &= \frac{(\omega(\text{final}))^2 - (\omega(\text{initial}))^2}{2\, \theta} \\ &= \frac{-\left(39.1\; \rm rad \cdot s^{-1}\right)^2}{2\times 153.6\pi\; \rm rad} \approx -1.58\; \rm rad \cdot s^{-1}\end{aligned}$ .

7 0

3 years ago