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3 years ago

Which statement about electromagnet is true

Physics

2 answers:

Snowcat [4.5K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: It doesn’t function without a source of current

Explanation:

In an electromagnet, the magnetic field is generated by an electric current in a coil of wire which reinforces an iron core. But when the electric current applied on the mentioned core is disconnected, it immediately loses its magnetization. This also means that the intensity of the magnetic field can be controlled (increased or decreased) by changing the intensity of the electric current flowing through the nucleus.

That is why an electromagnet does not work without electric current.

avanturin [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

<h2>It doesn’t function without a source of current.</h2>

Explanation:

An electromagnet is defined as a magnet where its magnetic field is generated by an electrical current.

A simple form of an electromagnet is coil of wire wrapped around an iron core. The iron material helps to intensity the magnetic field.

Additonally, the strength of the magnetic field depends directly on the amount of current.

Therefore, the right answer is the first choice, because an electromagnet won't work without a current.

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When illuminated with monochromatic light, a double slit produces a pattern that is a combination of single-slit diffraction and

d1i1m1o1n [39]

Answer:

The ratio is $k:d = 1 : 5$

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The first minimum of the single slit pattern falls on the fifth maximum of the double slit pattern.

Generally the condition for constructive interference for as single slit is

$ksin(\theta) = n\lambda$

Here k is the width of the slit and n is the order of the fringe and for single slit n = 1 (cause we are considering the first maxima)

Generally the condition for constructive interference for as double slit is

$dsin\theta = m\lambda$

Here d is the separation between the slit and m is the order of the fringe and for double slit m = 5 (cause we are considering the first maxima)

=> $dsin\theta = 5\lambda$

$\frac{ksin(\theta)}{dsin(\theta)} = \frac{\lambda}{5\lambda}$

=> $\frac{k }{d} = \frac{1}{5}$

$k:d = 1 : 5$

5 0

3 years ago

A ball is dropped from somewhere above a window that is 2.00 m in height. As it falls, it is visible to a person boxing through

Irina18 [472]

Answer:

4.14 m

Explanation:

In the last leg of the journey the ball covers 2 m in 2ms or 0.2 s .

Let in this last leg , u be the initial velocity.

s = ut + 1/2 g t²

2 = .2 u + .5 x 9.8 x .04

u = 9.02 m /s .

Let v be the final velocity in this leg

v² = u² + 2 g s

v² = (9.02)² + 2 x 9.8 x 2

= 81.36 +39.2

v = 10.97 m / s

Now consider the whole height from where the ball dropped . Let it be h.

Initial velocity u = 0

v² = u² +2gh

(10.97 )² = 2 x 9.8 h

h = 6.14 m

Height from window

= 6.14 - 2m

= 4.14 m

5 0

4 years ago

what consistent physiological pattern are more common in women's teeth? A. Women's canines are generally sharper. B. Women have

irakobra [83]

Answer:

Explanation:

B. Women have straighter teeth.

5 0

4 years ago

Downward force of magnitude 5 N isexerted on the book by the force ofthetablegravityinertia .

mylen [45]

Downward force of magnitude 5 N is exerted on the book by the force of <em>gravity</em>. We call that the "weight" of the book.

At the same time, upward force of 5 N is exerted on the book by the table. This one is called the "normal force".

Since the vertical forces on the book are 'balanced' (add up to zero), the book just lays there on the table, and does not accelerate.

4 0

3 years ago

John says that the value of the function cos[ω(t + T) + ϕ], obtained one period T after time t, is greater than cos(ωt + ϕ) by 2

Svetllana [295]

Answer:

No one is right

Explanation:

John Case:

The function $cos(\omega t +\phi)$ is defined between -1 and 1, So it is not possible obtain a value $2\pi$ greater.

In addition, if you move the function cosine a T Value, and T is the Period, the function take the same value due to the cosine is a periodic function.

Larry case:

Is you have $f=1+cos(\omega t +\phi)$ , the domain of this is [0,2].

it is equivalent to adding 1 to the domain of the $f=1+cos(\omega t +\phi)$ , and its mean that the function $f=cos(\omega t +\phi)$ , in general, is not greater than $cos(\omega t +\phi)$ .

3 0

3 years ago