Sure. Body can move with uniform speed, and having zero velocity, when velocity becomes zero due to change in direction over time t.
For Example. - An Object is moving with uniform speed in a circular path, then after one complete revolution, it's velocity is zero, but speed still remains uniform
Hope this helps!
Answer:
a) the magnitude of r is 184.62
b) the direction is 37.74° south of the negative x-axis
Explanation:
Given the data in the question;
as illustrated in the image blow;
To find the the magnitude of r, we will use the Pythagoras theorem
r² = y² + x²
r = √( y² + x²)
we substitute
r = √((-113)² + (-146)²)
r = √(12769 + 21316 )
r = √(34085 )
r = 184.62
Therefore, the magnitude of r is 184.62
To find its direction, we need to find ∅
from SOH CAH TOA
tan = opposite / adjacent
tan∅ = -113 / -146
tan∅ = 0.77397
∅ = tan⁻¹( 0.77397 )
∅ = 37.74°
Therefore, the direction is 37.74° south of the negative x-axis
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
The spring force is given as:
F = kd
F is the spring force
K is the spring constant
d is the magnitude of the stretch
Since k is a constant, therefore, doubling the stretch distance will double the force.
Both stretch distance and force applied can be said to be directly proportional to one another.
A: Human Body
C is wrong because they don’t have the tools to test it on another planet
Answer:
Explanation:
let force exerted by engine be F.Net force =( F-400)N, applying newton law
F-400 = 1.5 x 10³x18 =27000 ,
F = 27400 N.
velocity after 12 s = 0 + 18 x 12 = 216 m/s
Average velocity = (0 + 216 )/2 = 108 m/s
Average power = force x average velocity = 27400 x 108 = 29.6 10⁵ W .⁶
b) At 12 s , velocity = 216 m/s
Instantaneous power = velocity x force = 216 x 27400 = 59.2 x 10⁶ W.