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Vlad1618 [11]
3 years ago
8

Flow and Pressure Drop of Gases in Packed Bed. Air at 394.3 K flows through a packed bed of cylinders having a diameter of 0.012

7 m and length the same as the diameter. The bed void fraction is 0.40 and the length of the packed bed is 3.66 m. The air enters the bed at 2.20 atm abs at the rate of 2.45 kg/m2 · s based on the empty cross section of the bed. Calculate the pressure drop of air in the bed.
Ans: Δp = 0.1547 × 105 Pa
Engineering
1 answer:
devlian [24]3 years ago
4 0

The pressure drop of air in the bed is  14.5 kPa.

<u>Explanation:</u>

To calculate Re:

R e=\frac{1}{1-\varepsilon} \frac{\rho q d_{p}}{\mu}

From the tables air property

\mu_{394 k}=2.27 \times 10^{-5}

Ideal gas law is used to calculate the density:

ρ = \frac{2.2}{2.83 \times 10^{-3} \times 394.3}

ρ = 1.97 Kg / m^{3}

ρ = \frac{P}{RT}

R = \frac{R_{c} }{M} = 8.2 × 10^{-5} / 28.97×10^{-3}

R = 2.83 × 10^{-3} m^{3} atm / K Kg

q is expressed in the unit m/s

q=\frac{2.45}{1.97}

q = 1.24 m/s

Re = \frac{1}{1-0.4} \frac{1.97 \times 1.24 \times 0.0127}{2.27 \times 10^{-5}}

Re = 2278

The Ergun equation is used when Re > 10,

\frac{\Delta P}{L}=\frac{180 \mu}{d_{p}^{2}} \frac{(1-\varepsilon)^{2}}{\varepsilon^{3}} q+\frac{7}{4} \frac{\rho}{d_{p}} \frac{(1-\varepsilon)}{\varepsilon^{3}} q^{2}

\frac{\Delta P}{L}=\frac{180 \times 2.27 \times 10^{-5}}{0.0127^{2}} \frac{(1-0.4)^{2}}{0.4^{3}} 1.24 +\frac{7}{4} \frac{1.97}{0.0127} \frac{(1-0.4)}{0.4^{3}} 1.24^{2}

= 4089.748 Pa/m

ΔP = 4089.748 × 3.66

ΔP = 14.5 kPa

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5 0
3 years ago
To provide some perspective on the dimensions of atomic defects, consider a metal specimen that has a dislocation density of 105
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

62.14\ \text{miles}

6213727.37\ \text{miles}

Explanation:

The distance of the chain would be the product of the dislocation density and the volume of the metal.

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Volume of the metal = 1000\ \text{mm}^3

10^5\times 1000=10^8\ \text{mm}\\ =10^5\ \text{m}

1\ \text{mile}=1609.34\ \text{m}

\dfrac{10^5}{1609.34}=62.14\ \text{miles}

The chain would extend 62.14\ \text{miles}

Dislocation density = 10^{10}\ \text{mm}^{-2}

Volume of the metal = 1000\ \text{mm}^3

10^{10}\times 1000=10^{13}\ \text{mm}\\ =10^{10}\ \text{m}

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3 0
3 years ago
A cylindrical specimen of some metal alloy having an elastic modulus of 124 GPa and an original cross-sectional diameter of 4.2
IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

the maximum length of the specimen before deformation is 0.4366 m

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Elastic modulus E = 124 GPa = 124 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

cross-sectional diameter D = 4.2 mm = 4.2 × 10⁻³ m

tensile load F = 1810 N

maximum allowable elongation Δl = 0.46 mm = 0.46 × 10⁻³ m

Now to calculate the maximum length l for the deformation, we use the following relation;

l = [ Δl × E × π × D² ] / 4F

so we substitute our values into the formula

l = [ (0.46 × 10⁻³) × (124 × 10⁹) × π × (4.2 × 10⁻³)² ] / ( 4 × 1810 )

l = 3161.025289 / 7240

l = 0.4366 m

Therefore, the maximum length of the specimen before deformation is 0.4366 m

5 0
3 years ago
A gas in a piston–cylinder assembly undergoes a compression process for which the relation between pressure and volume is given
viktelen [127]

Answer:

A.) P = 2bar, W = - 12kJ

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C.) P = 0.608 bar, W = - 6.4kJ

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PV^n = constant.

That is, P1V1^n = P2V2^n

P1 = P2 × ( V2/V1 )^n

If the initial volume V1 = 0.1 m3,

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the final pressure P2 = 2 bar. 

A.) When n = 0

Substitute all the parameters into the formula

(V2/V1)^0 = 1

Therefore, P2 = P1 = 2 bar

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Work = 2 × 10^5 × [ 0.04 - 0.1 ]

Work = 200000 × - 0.06

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Work = - 12 kJ

B.) When n = 1

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P1 = 2 × 0.4 = 0.8 bar

Work = ∫ PdV = constant × ∫dV/V

Work = P1V1 × ln ( V2/V1 )

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Work = -7.33 kJ

C.) When n = 1.3

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5 0
4 years ago
X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.
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It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
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4 0
2 years ago
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