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jeyben [28]
3 years ago
8

Its an opinion!!!!

Engineering
1 answer:
IceJOKER [234]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

nothing really

Explanation:

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A pipeline (NPS = 14 in; schedule = 80) has a length of 200 m. Water (15℃) is flowing at 0.16 m3/s. What is the pipe head loss f
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Answer:

Head loss is 1.64

Explanation:

Given data:

Length (L) = 200 m

Discharge (Q) = 0.16 m3/s

According to table of nominal pipe size , for schedule 80 , NPS 14,  pipe has diameter (D)= 12.5 in or 31.8 cm 0.318 m

We know, head\ loss  = \frac{f L V^2}{( 2 g D)}

where, f = Darcy friction factor

V = flow velocity

g = acceleration due to gravity

We know, flow rate Q = A x V

solving for V

V = \frac{Q}{A}

    = \frac{0.16}{\frac{\pi}{4} (0.318)^2} = 2.015 m/s

obtained Darcy friction factor  

calculate Reynold number (Re) ,

Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu}

where,\rho = density of water

\mu = Dynamic viscosity of water at 15 degree  C = 0.001 Ns/m2

so reynold number is

Re = \frac{1000\times 2.015\times 0.318}{0.001}

            = 6.4 x 10^5

For Schedule 80 PVC pipes , roughness (e) is  0.0015 mm

Relative roughness (e/D) = 0.0015 / 318 = 0.00005

from Moody diagram, for Re = 640000 and e/D = 0.00005 , Darcy friction factor , f = 0.0126

Therefore head loss is

HL = \frac{0.0126 (200)(2.015)^2}{( 2 \times 9.81 \times 0.318)}

HL = 1.64 m

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Technician A says it will save you money if you get a high interest rate from a bank on the loan. Technician B says it is always
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Question in image. Question from OSHA.
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welding screens

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Please read the short case at the end of Chapter 8, "Mary Barra of General Motors Values Culture". Use the following prompts to
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Answer: Incoherent question

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