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3 years ago

The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3 calculate the mass of 1 cm3 of mercury

Physics

1 answer:

7nadin3 [17]3 years ago

5 0

the mass of 1cm3 of mercury is 13.6g because

the formula of density is mass/volume and when paste the number in it. you get the answer

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When is a secondary source more helpful than a primary source?

UNO [17]

Answer:

I think the answer is C.

Explanation:

A primary source is a first hand account of an event while a secondary source is a retelling or second hand account meaning as many details will be prevalent.

8 0

2 years ago

E<br> 3.6 What force is needed to give a mass of<br> 20 kg an acceleration of 5 m/s??

luda_lava [24]

Explanation:

Mass(m)= 20kg
Acceleration (a)= 5m/s²
Force(F)= ?

We know that,

F=ma
F=20×5
F=100N

Hence, the needed force is 100N.

6 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

Ground reaction force acting on carter

mezya [45]

We don't know Carter, and we don't know where he is or what
he's doing, so I'm taking a big chance speculating on an answer.

I'm going to say that if Carter is pretty much just standing there,
or, let's say, lying on the ground taking a nap, then the force of
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8 0

2 years ago

A 2.0 moles of a monatomic ideal gas expands isothermally from state a to state b, Pa = 600 Pa, Va = 3.0 m3, and Vb = 9.0 m3.

krek1111 [17]

Answer:

a) Pb= 200 PA

b).work done= -3600 joules

c).3600joules

D).the system works under isothermal condition so no heat was transferred

Explanation:

2.0 moles of a monatomic ideal gas expands isothermally from state a to state b, Pa = 600 Pa, Va = 3.0 m3, and Vb = 9.0 m3.

a). PbVb= PaVa

Pb= (PaVa)/VB

Pb= (600*3)/9

Pb= 1800/9

Pb= 200 PA

b). work done= n(Pb-Pa)(Vb-Va)

Work done= 2*(200-600)(9-3)

Work done= -600(6)

Work done=- 3600 Pam³

work done= -3600 joules

C). Change in internal energy I the work done on the system

= 3600joules

D).the system works under isothermal condition so no heat was transferred

4 0

3 years ago

Aloop of wire of area 71 cm^2 is placed with its plane parallel to a 16 mt magnetic field. the loop is then rotated so that its

kkurt [141]

Answer:

Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.

Explanation:

The average EMF in the coil is equal to

$\displaystyle \frac{\text{Final Magnetic Flux} - \text{Initial Magnetic Flux}}{2}$ ,

Why does this formula work?

By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\Phi$ through the coil.

$\displaystyle \epsilon(t) = \frac{d}{dt}(\Phi(t))$ .

Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt$ .

However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t} \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \int_0^{t} \frac{d}{dt}\Phi(t)\cdot dt = \Phi(t) - \Phi(0)$ .

Hence the equation

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \frac{\Phi(t)- \Phi(0)}{t}$ .

Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in $\Phi(t)$ won't matter.

Apply this formula to this question. Note that $\Phi$ , the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation

$\Phi = B \cdot A \cdot N \; \sin{\theta}$ .

For this question,

$B = \rm 16\; mT = 16\times 10^{-3}\; T$ is the strength of the magnetic field.
$A = \rm 71\; cm^{2} = 71\times \left(10^{-2}\right)^2 \; m^{2}$ is the area of the coil.
$N = 1$ is the number of loops in the coil.
$\theta$ is the angle between the field lines and the coil.
At $\rm 0\;s$ , the field lines are parallel to the coil, $\theta = 0^{\circ}$ .
At $\rm 0.7\; s$ , the field lines are perpendicular to the coil, $\displaystyle \theta = 90^{\circ}$ .