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asambeis [7]
3 years ago
11

Give a reason why fighter aircraft use mid-wing design.

Engineering
1 answer:
Ket [755]3 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

Mid-wing configuration places wings exactly at midline of airplane which means at half of height of fuselage. These airplanes are well balanced and also they have a large control surface area.It is the best option aerodynamically as these planes are streamlined much more and also has low interference drag as compared to the high and the low wing configurations.

The mid-wing has almost neutral roll stability that is further good from prespective of the combat as well as the aerobatic aircraft as mid-wing allows for performance of the rapid roll maneuvers with the minimum yaw coupling.

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The velocity of a particle which moves along the s-axis is given by = 40 − 3 2/ , ℎ t is in seconds. Calculate the displacement
scoundrel [369]

The displacement ∆S of the particle during the interval from t = 2sec to 4sec is; 210 sec

<h3>How to find the displacement?</h3>

We are given the velocity equation as;

s' = 40 - 3t²

Thus, the speed equation will be gotten by integration of the velocity equation to get;

s = ∫40 - 3t²

s = 40t - ¹/₂t³

Thus, the displacement between times of t = 2 sec and t = 4 sec is;

∆S = [40(4) - ¹/₂(4)³] - [40(2) - ¹/₂(2)³]

∆S = 210 m

Read more about Displacement at; brainly.com/question/4931057

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
I want to cancel my membership
Dennis_Churaev [7]
1. Go to settings 2. Press on your Apple ID 3. Press on subscriptions then turn them off.
5 0
2 years ago
A 20-mm-diameter steel bar is to be used as a torsion spring. If the torsional stress in the bar is not to exceed 110 MPa when o
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

1.887 m

Explanation:

(15 *pi)/180

= 0.2618 rad

Polar moment

= Pi*d⁴/32

= (22/7*20⁴)/32

= 15707.96

Torque on shaft

= ((22/7)*20³*110)/16

= 172857.14

= 172.8nm

Shear modulus

G = 79.3

L = Gjθ/T

= 79.3x10⁹x(1.571*10^-8)x0.2618/172.8

= 1.887 m

The length of the bar is therefore 1.887 meters

5 0
3 years ago
(SI units) Molten metal is poured into the pouring cup of a sand mold at a steady rate of 400 cm3/s. The molten metal overflows
maxonik [38]

Answer:

diameter of the sprue at the bottom is 1.603 cm

Explanation:

Given data;

Flow rate, Q = 400 cm³/s

cross section of sprue: Round

Diameter of sprue at the top d_{top} = 3.4 cm

Height of sprue, h = 20 cm = 0.2 m

acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m/s²

Calculate the velocity at the sprue base

V_{base} = √2gh

we substitute

V_{base} = √(2 × 9.81 m/s² × 0.2 m )

V_{base} = 1.98091 m/s

V_{base} = 198.091 cm/s

diameter of the sprue at the bottom will be;

Q = AV = (πd_{bottom}^2/4) × V_{base}

d_{bottom} = √(4Q/πV_{base})

we substitute our values into the equation;

d_{bottom} = √(4(400 cm³/s) / (π×198.091 cm/s))

d_{bottom}  = 1.603 cm

Therefore, diameter of the sprue at the bottom is 1.603 cm

6 0
2 years ago
A homogeneous 800kg bar AB is supported at either end by a cable asshown in the figure
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

The smallest area of each cable if the stress is not to exceed 90MPa in bronze is 43.6 mm² and 120MPa in steel is 32.7 mm².

<h3>What is normal stress?</h3>

If the direction of deformation force is perpendicular to the cross-sectional area of ​​the body, the stress is called normal stress. Changes in wire length and body volume will be normal.

σ = P/A

Where, σ = Normal stress

P = Pressure

A = Area

1 Kg = 9.81 N

800 kg = 7848 N

Since the rod is half bronze and half steel

800 kg = 7848/2

= 3924 N

Pₙ = Fₙ = 3924 N                       [n = Bronze]

Pₓ =  3924 N                             [x = steel]

Given,

σₙ = 90MPa

σₓ = 120MPa

Aₙ = ?

Aₓ = ?

Aₙ = Pₙ/σₙ

Aₙ = 3924/90

Aₙ = 43.6 mm²

Aₓ = Pₓ/σₓ

Aₓ = 3924/120

Aₓ = 32.7 mm²

To know more about normal stress, visit:

brainly.com/question/28012990

#SPJ9

4 0
1 year ago
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