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asambeis [7]
3 years ago
11

Give a reason why fighter aircraft use mid-wing design.

Engineering
1 answer:
Ket [755]3 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

Mid-wing configuration places wings exactly at midline of airplane which means at half of height of fuselage. These airplanes are well balanced and also they have a large control surface area.It is the best option aerodynamically as these planes are streamlined much more and also has low interference drag as compared to the high and the low wing configurations.

The mid-wing has almost neutral roll stability that is further good from prespective of the combat as well as the aerobatic aircraft as mid-wing allows for performance of the rapid roll maneuvers with the minimum yaw coupling.

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The internal loadings at a critical section along the steel drive shaft of a ship are calculated to be a torque of 2300 lb⋅ft, a
Arturiano [62]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that:

Torque T = 2300 lb - ft

Bending moment M = 1500 lb - ft

axial thrust P = 2500 lb

yield points for tension  σY= 100 ksi

yield points for shear   τY = 50 ksi

Using maximum-shear-stress theory

\sigma_A = \dfrac{P}{A}+\dfrac{Mc}{I}

where;

A = \pi c^2

I = \dfrac{\pi}{4}c^4

\sigma_A = \dfrac{P}{\pi c^2}+\dfrac{Mc}{ \dfrac{\pi}{4}c^4}

\sigma_A = \dfrac{2500}{\pi c^2}+\dfrac{1500*12c}{ \dfrac{\pi}{4}c^4}

\sigma_A = \dfrac{2500}{\pi c^2}+\dfrac{72000c}{\pi c^3}}

\tau_A = \dfrac{T_c}{\tau}

where;

\tau = \dfrac{\pi c^4}{2}

\tau_A = \dfrac{T_c}{\dfrac{\pi c^4}{2}}

\tau_A = \dfrac{2300*12 c}{\dfrac{\pi c^4}{2}}

\tau_A = \dfrac{55200 }{\pi c^3}}

\sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{\sigma_x+\sigma_y}{2} \pm \sqrt{\dfrac{(\sigma_x - \sigma_y)^2}{2}+ \tau_y^2}

\sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{2500+72000}{2 \pi c ^3} \pm \sqrt{\dfrac{(2500 +72000)^2}{2 \pi c^3}+ \dfrac{55200}{\pi c^3}} \ \ \ \ \ ------(1)

Let say :

|\sigma_1 - \sigma_2|  = \sigma_y

Then :

2\sqrt{(   \dfrac{2500c + 72000}{2 \pi c^3})^2+ ( \dfrac{55200}{\pi c^3})^2 } = 100(10^3)

(2500 c + 72000)^2 +(110400)^2 = 10000*10^6 \pi^2 c^6

6.25c^2 + 360c+ 17372.16-10,000\ \pi^2 c^6 =0

According to trial and error;

c = 0.75057 in

Replacing  c into equation (1)

\sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{2500+72000}{2 \pi (0.75057) ^3} \pm \sqrt{\dfrac{(2500 +72000)^2}{2 \pi (0.75057)^3}+ \dfrac{55200}{\pi (0.75057)^3}}

\sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{2500+72000}{2 \pi (0.75057) ^3} +  \sqrt{\dfrac{(2500 +72000)^2}{2 \pi (0.75057)^3}+ \dfrac{55200}{\pi (0.75057)^3}}  \ \ \  OR \\ \\ \\   \sigma_{1,2} = \dfrac{2500+72000}{2 \pi (0.75057) ^3} -  \sqrt{\dfrac{(2500 +72000)^2}{2 \pi (0.75057)^3}+ \dfrac{55200}{\pi (0.75057)^3}}

\sigma _1 = 22193 \ Psi

\sigma_2 = -77807 \ Psi

The required diameter d  = 2c

d = 1.50 in   or   0.125 ft

6 0
3 years ago
Is a compass a analog or a digital sensor?
ollegr [7]
A compass is a analog sensor
5 0
2 years ago
Analyze the example of this band saw wheel and axle. The diameter of the wheel is 14 inches. The diameter of the axle that drive
Kazeer [188]

The answer for the ideal mechanical advantage and actual mechanical advantage for the different scenarios are;

A) Ideal Mechanical Advantage = 18.67

B) Actual Mechanical Advantage = 4.1067

We are given;

Input distance; The diameter of the wheel; d_w = 14 inches

Output distance; The diameter of the axle that drives the wheel; d_a = 3/4 inches

The force needed to cut a one-inch-thick softwood board; F = 1.75 pounds

The efficiency of the band saw; η = 22% = 0.22

A) Formula for Mechanical advantage is;

M.A = Force output/Force input = (Input distance)/(Output distance)

Thus;

Ideal mechanical advantage = 14/(3/4)

Ideal mechanical advantage = 18.67

B) Now, we are given that efficiency of the band saw is η = 22% = 0.22.

Thus using the mechanical advantage formula above;

Actual mechanical advantage = 0.22 × Expected output

Actual mechanical advantage = 0.22 × 18.67

Actual mechanical advantage ≈ 4.1067

Read more about Mechanical Advantage at; brainly.com/question/18345299

5 0
2 years ago
In highways the far left lane is usually the _____
Ivan
Fastest


(Known as the fast lane)
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An air conditioning system operating on reversed carnot cycle is required to remove heat from the house at a rate of 32kj/s to m
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

(e) 1.64 kW

Explanation:

The Coefficient of Performance of the Reverse Carnot's Cycle is:

COP = \frac{T_{L}}{T_{H}-T_{L}}

COP = \frac{293.15\,K}{308.15\,K-293.15\,K}

COP = 19.543

Lastly, the power required to operate the air conditioning system is:

\dot W = \frac{\dot Q_{L}}{COP}

\dot W = \frac{32\,kW}{19.543}

\dot W = 1.637\,kW

Hence, the answer is E.

3 0
3 years ago
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