Answer:
same problem is here also bro i cannot find this plz help anyone
I am quite sure the first one is Friction, but I am not sure about the second one. Is it wind?
Answer:
0 N
Explanation:
Applying,
F = qvBsin∅................. Equation 1
Where F = Force on the charge, q = charge, v = Velocity, B = magnetic charge, ∅ = angle between the velocity and the magnetic field.
From the question,
Given: q = 4.88×10⁻⁶ C, v = 265 m/s, B = 0.0579 T, ∅ = 0°
Substitute these values into equation 1
F = ( 4.88×10⁻⁶)(265)(0.0579)(sin0)
Since sin0° = 0,
Therefore,
F = 0 N
Answer:
Explanation:
Ignoring friction, the initial kinetic energy will convert to maximum potential energy at its highest point.
PE = KE
mgh = ½mv²
h = v²/2g
h = 36.4²/ (2(9.81))
h = 67.53109...
h = 67.53 m
It’s C
Cause Impulse is found by multiplying the force and change in time (which is simply time)
So if you rearrange the equation for time you end up dividing Impulse by force.
