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pav-90 [236]
3 years ago
13

HELP I NEED THE ANSWER NOW

Physics
1 answer:
Setler79 [48]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Speed of light

Explanation:

The famous Einstein's equation is:

E=mc^2

where

E is the energy

m is the mass

c=3\cdot 10^8 m/s is the speed of light

In this equation, Einstein summarized the following fact: mass can be converted into energy, and the amount of energy released in such a process is given by the equation.

An example of application of this equation is the nuclear fusion process. In a nuclear fusion, two lighter nuclei combine into a heavier nucleus. However, the mass of the heavier nucleus is slightly less than the sum of the masses of the two original nuclei: some of the mass of the original nuclei has been converted into energy, accorging to the previous equation.

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The exit nozzle in a jet engine receives air at 1200 K, 150 kPa with negligible kinetic energy. The exit pressure is 80 kPa, and
nikitadnepr [17]

Complete question:

The exit nozzle in a jet engine receives air at 1200 K, 150 kPa with negligible kinetic energy. The exit pressure is 80 kPa, and the process is reversible and adiabatic. Use constant specific heat at 300 K to find the exit velocity.

Answer:

The exit velocity is 629.41 m/s

Explanation:

Given;

initial temperature, T₁ = 1200K

initial pressure, P₁ = 150 kPa

final pressure, P₂ = 80 kPa

specific heat at 300 K, Cp = 1004 J/kgK

k = 1.4

Calculate final temperature;

T_2 = T_1(\frac{P_2}{P_1})^{\frac{k-1 }{k}

k = 1.4

T_2 = T_1(\frac{P_2}{P_1})^{\frac{k-1 }{k}}\\\\T_2 = 1200(\frac{80}{150})^{\frac{1.4-1 }{1.4}}\\\\T_2 = 1002.714K

Work done is given as;

W = \frac{1}{2} *m*(v_i^2 - v_e^2)

inlet velocity is negligible;

v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2W}{m} } = \sqrt{2*C_p(T_1-T_2)} \\\\v_e = \sqrt{2*1004(1200-1002.714)}\\\\v_e = \sqrt{396150.288} \\\\v_e = 629.41  \ m/s

Therefore, the exit velocity is 629.41 m/s

6 0
3 years ago
Which equation is equivalent to Log (26•35) ?
Nady [450]

Answer:

Log (26) + Log (35)

6 0
3 years ago
A particle has a charge of q = +4.9 μC and is located at the origin. As the drawing shows, an electric field of Ex = +242 N/C ex
irina1246 [14]

a)

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N (+x axis)

F_{B_x}=0

F_{B_y}=0

b)

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N (+x axis)

F_{B_x}=0

F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N (+z axis)

c)

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N (+x axis)

F_{B_x}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N (+y axis)

F_{B_y}=3.21\cdot 10^{-3}N (-x axis)

Explanation:

a)

The electric force exerted on a charged particle is given by

F=qE

where

q is the charge

E is the electric field

For a positive charge, the direction of the force is the same as the electric field.

In this problem:

q=+4.9\mu C=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C is the charge

E_x=+242 N/C is the electric field, along the x-direction

So the electric force (along the x-direction) is:

F_{E_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(242)=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N

towards positive x-direction.

The magnetic force instead is given by

F=qvB sin \theta

where

q is the charge

v is the velocity of the charge

B is the magnetic field

\theta is the angle between the directions of v and B

Here the charge is stationary: this means v=0, therefore the magnetic force due to each component of the magnetic field is zero.

b)

In this case, the particle is moving along the +x axis.

The magnitude of the electric force does not depend on the speed: therefore, the electric force on the particle here is the same as in part a,

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3} N (towards positive x-direction)

Concerning the magnetic force, we have to analyze the two different fields:

- B_x: this field is parallel to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, \theta=0^{\circ}, so the force due to this field is zero.

- B_y: this field is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, which is moving along the +x axis. Therefore, \theta=90^{\circ}. Therefore, \theta=90^{\circ}, so the force due to this field is:

F_{B_y}=qvB_y

where:

q=+4.9\cdot 10^{-6}C is the charge

v=345 m/s is the velocity

B_y = +1.9 T is the magnetic field

Substituting,

F_{B_y}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N

And the direction of this force can be found using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: direction of the velocity (+x axis)

- Middle finger: direction of the magnetic field (+y axis)

- Thumb: direction of the force (+z axis)

c)

As in part b), the electric force has not change, since it does not depend on the veocity of the particle:

F_{E_x}=1.19\cdot 10^{-3}N (+x axis)

For the field B_x, the velocity (+z axis) is now perpendicular to the magnetic field (+x axis), so the force is

F_{B_x}=qvB_x

And by substituting,

F_{B_x}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N

And by using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: velocity (+z axis)

- Middle finger: magnetic field (+x axis)

- Thumb: force (+y axis)

For the field B_y, the velocity (+z axis) is also perpendicular to the magnetic field (+y axis), so the force is

F_{B_y}=qvB_y

And by substituting,

F_{B_y}=(4.9\cdot 10^{-6})(345)(1.9)=3.21\cdot 10^{-3} N

And by using the right-hand rule:

- Index finger: velocity (+z axis)

- Middle finger: magnetic field (+y axis)

- Thumb: force (-y axis)

3 0
3 years ago
Find the separation of two points on the Moon’s surface that can just be resolved by the 200 in. (= 5.1 m) telescope at Mount Pa
rewona [7]

Answer:

The separation of the 2 points should be 50.0 meters.

Explanation:

According to Rayleigh's scattering criteria the angular separation between 2 points to be resolved equals

\theta =1.22\cdot \frac{\lambda }{D}

Applying the given values we get

\theta =1.22\cdot \frac{550\times 10^{-9} }{5.1}=0.1316\times 10^{-6}rads

thus the linear separation equals L=\theta \times Distance

Applying the given values we get

L=0.1316\times 10^{-6} \times 3.8\times 10^{5}\times 10^{3}meters\\\\\therefore L=50.00metes

6 0
3 years ago
A worker uses a cart to move a load of bricks a distance of 10m across a parking lot. if he pushes the cart with a constant forc
andriy [413]

Answer:

2090 J

Explanation:

the work done to move the cart is equal to the product between the force applied and the distance traveled:

W=Fd

In this case, the force applied is F=209 N, while the distance covered is d=10 m, therefore the work done is

W=Fd=(209 N)(10 m)=2090 J

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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