Answer:
a)Are generally associated with factor.
Explanation:
We know that losses are two types
1.Major loss :Due to friction of pipe surface
2.Minor loss :Due to change in the direction of flow
As we know that when any hindrance is produced during the flow of fluid then it leads to generate the energy losses.If flow is along uniform diameter pipe then there will not be any loss but if any valve and fitting placed is the path of fluid flow due to this direction of fluid flow changes and it produce losses in the energy.
Lot' of experimental data tell us that loss in the energy due to valve and fitting are generally associated with K factor.These losses are given as
![Losses=K\dfrac{V^2}{2g}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Losses%3DK%5Cdfrac%7BV%5E2%7D%7B2g%7D)
Answer:
1) The exergy of destruction is approximately 456.93 kW
2) The reversible power output is approximately 5456.93 kW
Explanation:
1) The given parameters are;
P₁ = 8 MPa
T₁ = 500°C
From which we have;
s₁ = 6.727 kJ/(kg·K)
h₁ = 3399 kJ/kg
P₂ = 2 MPa
T₂ = 350°C
From which we have;
s₂ = 6.958 kJ/(kg·K)
h₂ = 3138 kJ/kg
P₃ = 2 MPa
T₃ = 500°C
From which we have;
s₃ = 7.434 kJ/(kg·K)
h₃ = 3468 kJ/kg
P₄ = 30 KPa
T₄ = 69.09 C (saturation temperature)
From which we have;
h₄ =
+ x₄×
= 289.229 + 0.97*2335.32 = 2554.49 kJ/kg
s₄ =
+ x₄×
= 0.94394 + 0.97*6.8235 ≈ 7.563 kJ/(kg·K)
The exergy of destruction,
, is given as follows;
= T₀ ×
= T₀ ×
× (s₄ + s₂ - s₁ - s₃)
= T₀ ×
×(s₄ + s₂ - s₁ - s₃)/(h₁ + h₃ - h₂ - h₄)
∴
= 298.15 × 5000 × (7.563 + 6.958 - 6.727 - 7.434)/(3399 + 3468 - 3138 - 2554.49) ≈ 456.93 kW
The exergy of destruction ≈ 456.93 kW
2) The reversible power output,
=
+
≈ 5000 + 456.93 kW = 5456.93 kW
The reversible power output ≈ 5456.93 kW.
Answer:
Consider A is square matrix of order 4 x 4 generated using magic function. Augmented matrix can be generated using:
Aug=[A eye(size(A))]
Above command is tested in MATLAB command window and is attached in figure below
Answer:
The voltages of all nodes are, IE = 4.65 mA, IB =46.039μA, IC=4.6039 mA, VB = 10v, VE =10.7, Vc =4.6039 v
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
V+ = 20v
Re = 2kΩ
Rc = 1kΩ
Now we will amke use of the method KVL in the loop.
= - Ve + IE . Re + VEB + VB = 0
Thus
IE = V+ -VEB -VB/Re
Which gives us the following:
IE = 20-0.7 - 10/2k
= 9.3/2k
so, IE = 4.65 mA
IB = IE/β +1 = 4.65 m /101
Thus,
IB = 0.046039 mA
IB = 46.039μA
IC =βIB
Now,
IC = 100 * 0.046039
IC is 4.6039 mA
Now,
VB = 10v
VE = VB + VEB
= 10 +0.7 = 10.7 v
So,
Vc =Ic . Rc = 4.6039 * 1k
=4.6039 v
Finally, this is the table summary from calculations carried out.
Summary Table
Parameters IE IC IB VE VB Vc
Unit mA mA μA V V V
Value 4.65 4.6039 46.039 10.7 10 4.6039