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loris [4]
3 years ago
6

Earthquakes usually happen at: - folds - mountains - fault lines

Physics
1 answer:
anastassius [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Fault lines

Explanation:

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Placing the north pole of a magnet near the south pole of another magnet results in:
MakcuM [25]

Answer:

An attractive force between the magnets. A is the correct answer if it was the north pole facing another north pole magnet the answer would have been a repulsive force between the magnets because the north pole of a magnet does not attract instead it separates from each other which is a repulsive force the best answer is A.

Explanation:

the southern pole of a magnet is a positive force while the northern pole of a magnet is negative .

Note: Magnet can attract each other only when they are facing the opposite directions a north pole will attract a south pole; the magnets pull on each other. But the two north poles will push each other away.

8 0
3 years ago
Through which of the following would sound travel fastest?
mixas84 [53]

Answer: ??? D? dont quote me on it tho <3

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

6.86 m/s

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing the total energy balance, i.e:

initial (KE + PE)  = final (KE + PE). { KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy}

Since the rod comes to a halt at the topmost position, the KE final is 0. Therefore, all the KE initial is changed to PE, i.e, ΔKE = ΔPE.

Now, at the initial position (the rod hanging vertically down), the bottom-most end is given a velocity of v0. The initial angular velocity(ω) of the rod is given by ω = v/r , where v is the velocity of a particle on the rod and r is the distance of this particle from the axis.

Now, taking v = v0 and r = length of the rod(L), we get ω = v0/ 0.8 rad/s

The rotational KE of the rod is given by KE = 0.5Iω², where I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation and this is given by I = 1/3mL², where L is the length of the rod. Therefore, KE = 1/2ω²1/3mL² = 1/6ω²mL². Also, ω = v0/L, hence KE = 1/6m(v0)²

This KE is equal to the change in PE of the rod. Since the rod is uniform, the center of mass of the rod is at its center and is therefore at a distane of L/2 from the axis of rotation in the downward direction and at the final position, it is at a distance of L/2 in the upward direction. Hence ΔPE = mgL/2 + mgL/2 = mgL. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Now, 1/6m(v0)² = mgL ⇒ v0 = \sqrt{6gL}

Hence, v0 = 6.86 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
explain the relationship between kinetic and potential energy in the example (the pic) while using the words mechanical energy a
BigorU [14]
PE is the energy acquired by a body due to its height ! While KE is the energy acquired by the body due to its motion !

KE+PE = mechanical energy and thus mechanical energy is always conserved due to the conservation of energy which states that energy is neither created nor destroyed but only transformed !
5 0
4 years ago
Compared to your mass on earth, on the moon your mass would be
nirvana33 [79]
I believe your mass on the moon would be lighter than on earth because there is no gravity on the moon
4 0
3 years ago
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