Answer:
a) 
, b) 
, c) 
, d) 
, e) 
Explanation:
a) The coefficient of performance of the reversible refrigeration cycle is:
The temperature of the hot reservoir is:
b) The coefficient of performance is:
c) The temperature of the hot reservoir can be determined with the help of the following relation:
d) The coefficient of performance is:
e) The temperature of the cold reservoir is:
6 feet
Explanation: A few extra feet of free fall can significantly increase the arresting force on the employee, possibly to the point of causing injury. Because of this, the free fall distance should be kept at a minimum, and, as required by the standard, in no case greater than 6 feet (1.8 m).
Answer:
a) 1253 kJ
b) 714 kJ
c) 946 C
Explanation:
The thermal efficiency is given by this equation
η = L/Q1
Where
η: thermal efficiency
L: useful work
Q1: heat taken from the heat source
Rearranging:
Q1 = L/η
Replacing
Q1 = 539 / 0.43 = 1253 kJ
The first law of thermodynamics states that:
Q = L + ΔU
For a machine working in cycles ΔU is zero between homologous parts of the cycle.
Also we must remember that we count heat entering the system as positiv and heat leaving as negative.
We split the heat on the part that enters and the part that leaves.
Q1 + Q2 = L + 0
Q2 = L - Q1
Q2 = 539 - 1253 = -714 kJ
TO calculate a temperature for the heat sink we must consider this cycle as a Carnot cycle. Then we can use the thermal efficiency equation for the Carnot cycle, this one uses temperatures:
η = 1 - T2/T1
T2/T1 = 1 - η
T2 = (1 - η) * T1
The temperatures must be given in absolute scale (1453 C = 1180 K)
T2 = (1 - 0.43) * 1180 = 673 K
673 K = 946 C
It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.
<h3>What is
Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>
The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
<h3>
What is the explanation for the above?</h3>
as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:
F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!
If F(0) = Cot 0
F(0) = ∝ = 1/0
This is not definitive,
Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.
Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
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