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Ivahew [28]
4 years ago
15

Can i make an engine with magnets?

Engineering
1 answer:
Phantasy [73]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

No, because Scientists and inventors alike have attempted to use permanent magnets alone to drive a motor. A permanent magnet motor would not produce energy and would not be a perpetual motion machine.

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In C++ the declaration of floating point variables starts with the type name float or double, followed by the name of the variab
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

The given grammar is :

S = T V ;

V = C X

X = , V | ε

T = float | double

C = z | w

1.

Nullable variables are the variables which generate ε ( epsilon ) after one or more steps.

From the given grammar,

Nullable variable is X as it generates ε ( epsilon ) in the production rule : X -> ε.

No other variables generate variable X or ε.

So, only variable X is nullable.

2.

First of nullable variable X is First (X ) = , and ε (epsilon).

L.H.S.

The first of other varibles are :

First (S) = {float, double }

First (T) = {float, double }

First (V) = {z, w}

First (C) = {z, w}

R.H.S.

First (T V ; ) = {float, double }

First ( C X ) = {z, w}

First (, V) = ,

First ( ε ) = ε

First (float) = float

First (double) = double

First (z) = z

First (w) = w

3.

Follow of nullable variable X is Follow (V).

Follow (S) = $

Follow (T) = {z, w}

Follow (V) = ;

Follow (X) = Follow (V) = ;

Follow (C) = , and ;

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Water at 200C flows through a pipe of 10 mm diameter pipe at 1 m/s. Is the flow Turbulent ? a. Yes b. No
Degger [83]

Answer:

Yes, the flow is turbulent.

Explanation:

Reynolds number gives the nature of flow. If he Reynolds number is less than 2000 then the flow is laminar else turbulent.

Given:

Diameter of pipe is 10mm.

Velocity of the pipe is 1m/s.

Temperature of water is 200°C.

The kinematic viscosity at temperature 200°C is 1.557\times10^{-7}m2/s.

Calculation:

Step1

Expression for Reynolds number is given as follows:

Re=\frac{vd}{\nu}

Here, v is velocity, \nu is kinematic viscosity, d is diameter and Re is Reynolds number.

Substitute the values in the above equation as follows:

Re=\frac{vd}{\nu}

Re=\frac{1\times(10mm)(\frac{1m}{1000mm})}{1.557\times10^{-7}}

Re=64226.07579

Thus, the Reynolds number is 64226.07579. This is greater than 2000.

Hence, the given flow is turbulent flow.

5 0
3 years ago
B)
Triss [41]

Answer:

2.5 is the required details

8 0
3 years ago
The first step in treating shock is to
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

Lay the person down and elevate thier legs slightly.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Express (118)10 and (-49)10 in 8-bit binary one’s complement form and then add the numbers. What would be the representation (-0
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

118_{10}= 0110111 2) -49_{10}=110001_{2} 3) 0_{10}=0:16 \Rightarrow 0_{10}=0_{16}

Explanation:

1) Expressing the Division as the summation of the quotient and the remainder

for

118, knowing it is originally a decimal form:

118:2=59  +(0), 59/2 =29 + 1, 29/2=14+1, 14/2=7+0, 7/2=3+1, 3/2=1+1, 1/2=0+1

118_{10}= 0110111

2) -49_{10}

Similarly, we'll start the process with the absolute value of -49 since we want the positive value of it. Then let's start the successive divisions till zero.

|-49|=49

49:2=24+1, 24:2=12+0,12:2=6+0,6:2=3+0,3:2=1+1,1:2=0+1

100011

-49_{10}=110001_{2}

3) (-0)_{10}

The first step on that is dividing by 16, and then dividing their quotient again by 16, so on and adding their remainders. Simply put:

(-0)_{10}=0:16=0 \Rightarrow (0)_{10}=0_{16} \:or\\(0)_{16}=0000000000000000

5 0
3 years ago
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