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elena55 [62]
3 years ago
8

The free-fall acceleration at the surface of planet 1 is 26 m/s^2 . The radius and the mass of planet 2 are twice those of plane

t 1.
What is the free-fall acceleration on planet 2? Express your answer using two significant figures. m/s^2.
Physics
1 answer:
valkas [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

13 m/s^2

Explanation:

The acceleration of gravity near the surface of a planet is:

g = MG / R^2

For planet 1, g = 26 m/s^2.

The gravity on planet 2 in terms of the mass and radius of planet 1 is:

g = (2M)G / (2R^2)

g = 1/2 MG / R^2

Since MG/R^2 = 26 m/s^2, then:

g = 13 m/s^2

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Consider two waves defined by the wave functions y1(x,t)=0.50msin(2π3.00mx+2π4.00st) and y2(x,t)=0.50msin(2π6.00mx−2π4.00st). Wh
guapka [62]

Answer:

They two waves has the same amplitude and frequency but different wavelengths.

Explanation: comparing the wave equation above with the general wave equation

y(x,t) = Asin(2Πft + 2Πx/¶)

Let ¶ be the wavelength

A is the amplitude

f is the frequency

t is the time

They two waves has the same amplitude and frequency but different wavelengths.

4 0
3 years ago
1. A 3.1 kg cart is traveling at 7.12 m/s to the right and it has a head on elastic collision with a 11.7 kg cart traveling at 1
Rashid [163]

Answer:

1.03 m/s

Explanation:

I'm too lazy to write the explanation down but my teacher graded this and it was right

6 0
2 years ago
Guys answer with a clear explanation and plzz don't spam.
timama [110]

Answer:

20.7N

Explanation:

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3 0
3 years ago
A tennis ball, a bowling ball, and a feather are dropped from the top of a tall building at the same time. Consider what you hav
lord [1]
The object that reaches the ground first is thebowling ball i think because it weighs heavier but when the tennis ball hits the ground it will bounce again and again till it stops and the bowling ball will just stop it wont bounce
7 0
3 years ago
A car advertisement states that a certain car can accelerate from rest to
kaheart [24]

Answer:

a = 2.22 [m/s^2]

Explanation:

First we have to convert from kilometers per hour to meters per second

40 [\frac{km}{h}]*[\frac{1h}{3600s}]*[\frac{1000m}{1km}] = 11.11 [m/s]

We have to use the following kinematics equation:

v_{f}= v_{i}+(a*t)

where:

Vf = final velocity = 11.11 [m/s]

Vi = initial velocity = 0

a = acceleration [m/s^2]

t = time = 5 [s]

The initial speed is taken as zero, as the car starts from zero.

11.11 = 0 + (a*5)

a = 2.22 [m/s^2]

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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